74 CSAT questions from the official UPSC 2013 Prelims paper, each with the verified answer key and an explanation.
1–74 of 74
Q1·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
A stout old lady was walking with her basket down the middle of a street in Petrograd to the great confusion of the traffic and no small peril to herself. It was pointed out to her that the pavement was the place for foot-passengers, but she replied, "I'm going to walk where I like. We've got liberty now." It did not occur to the dear lady that if liberty entitled the foot-passenger to walk down the middle of the road it also entitled the taxi-driver to drive on the pavement, and that the end of such liberty would be universal chaos. Everything would be getting in everybody else's way and nobody would get anywhere. Individual liberty would have become social anarchy. Question: The old lady failed to realise that
Correct: B
The passage explains that if everyone used liberty without limits, universal chaos would result. The old lady failed to understand that individual liberty is limited by others' equal rights.
Q2·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
A stout old lady was walking with her basket down the middle of a street in Petrograd to the great confusion of the traffic and no small peril to herself. It was pointed out to her that the pavement was the place for foot-passengers, but she replied, "I'm going to walk where I like. We've got liberty now." It did not occur to the dear lady that if liberty entitled the foot-passenger to walk down the middle of the road it also entitled the taxi-driver to drive on the pavement, and that the end of such liberty would be universal chaos. Everything would be getting in everybody else's way and nobody would get anywhere. Individual liberty would have become social anarchy. Question: The lady refused to move from the middle of the street because
Correct: B
Her reply, "I'm going to walk where I like. We've got liberty now," shows that she believed liberty allowed her to do whatever she liked.
Q3·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
A stout old lady was walking with her basket down the middle of a street in Petrograd to the great confusion of the traffic and no small peril to herself. It was pointed out to her that the pavement was the place for foot-passengers, but she replied, "I'm going to walk where I like. We've got liberty now." It did not occur to the dear lady that if liberty entitled the foot-passenger to walk down the middle of the road it also entitled the taxi-driver to drive on the pavement, and that the end of such liberty would be universal chaos. Everything would be getting in everybody else's way and nobody would get anywhere. Individual liberty would have become social anarchy. Question: It was pointed out to the lady that she should walk on the pavement because she was
Correct: A
The passage says the pavement was the proper place for foot-passengers. Since the lady was walking, she was a pedestrian and should have used the pavement.
Q4·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
It was already late when we set out for the next town, which according to the map was about fifteen kilometres away on the other side of the hills. There we felt that we would find a bed for the night. Darkness fell soon after we left the village, but luckily we met no one as we drove swiftly along the narrow winding road that led to the hills. As we climbed higher, it became colder and rain began to fall, making it difficult at times to see the road. I asked John, my companion, to drive more slowly. After we had travelled for about twenty kilometres, there was still no sign of the town which was marked on the map. We were beginning to get worried. Then without warning, the car stopped and we found we had run out of petrol. Question: The travellers were worried after twenty kilometres because
Correct: B
The map suggested the town was about fifteen kilometres away, but even after twenty kilometres there was no sign of it. This naturally made them worry that they had lost their way.
Q5·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
It was already late when we set out for the next town, which according to the map was about fifteen kilometres away on the other side of the hills. There we felt that we would find a bed for the night. Darkness fell soon after we left the village, but luckily we met no one as we drove swiftly along the narrow winding road that led to the hills. As we climbed higher, it became colder and rain began to fall, making it difficult at times to see the road. I asked John, my companion, to drive more slowly. After we had travelled for about twenty kilometres, there was still no sign of the town which was marked on the map. We were beginning to get worried. Then without warning, the car stopped and we found we had run out of petrol. Question: The travellers set out for the town although it was getting dark because
Correct: D
They set out because the map showed the town was only about fifteen kilometres away and they expected to find a bed there for the night.
Q6·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
It was already late when we set out for the next town, which according to the map was about fifteen kilometres away on the other side of the hills. There we felt that we would find a bed for the night. Darkness fell soon after we left the village, but luckily we met no one as we drove swiftly along the narrow winding road that led to the hills. As we climbed higher, it became colder and rain began to fall, making it difficult at times to see the road. I asked John, my companion, to drive more slowly. After we had travelled for about twenty kilometres, there was still no sign of the town which was marked on the map. We were beginning to get worried. Then without warning, the car stopped and we found we had run out of petrol. Question: The author asked John to drive more slowly because
Correct: C
The passage says rain began to fall, making it difficult at times to see the road; immediately after this the author asked John to drive more slowly.
Q7·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Seven-year-old Jim came home from the park without his new bicycle. "An old man and a little boy borrowed it," he explained. "They are going to bring it back at four o'clock." His parents were upset that he had given away his expensive new bicycle, but were secretly proud of his kindness and faith. Came four o'clock, no bicycle. The parents were anxious. But at 4:30, the door bell rang, and there stood a happy man and a boy, with the bicycle and a box of chocolates. Jim suddenly disappeared into his bedroom, and then came running out. "All right," he said, after examining the bicycle. "You can have your watch back!" Question: Jim returned the watch to the old man and the little boy because
Correct: C
Jim returned the watch only after examining the bicycle and saying "All right". This implies he had kept the watch as security and returned it once satisfied with the bicycle's condition.
Q8·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Seven-year-old Jim came home from the park without his new bicycle. "An old man and a little boy borrowed it," he explained. "They are going to bring it back at four o'clock." His parents were upset that he had given away his expensive new bicycle, but were secretly proud of his kindness and faith. Came four o'clock, no bicycle. The parents were anxious. But at 4:30, the door bell rang, and there stood a happy man and a boy, with the bicycle and a box of chocolates. Jim suddenly disappeared into his bedroom, and then came running out. "All right," he said, after examining the bicycle. "You can have your watch back!" Question: When Jim came home without his bicycle, his parents
Correct: B
The passage says the parents were upset that Jim had given away the bicycle and, when four o'clock passed without its return, they became anxious. Upset here expresses worry about the fate of the expensive bicycle, not anger directed at Jim - in fact they were secretly proud of his kindness and faith. Hence they were worried.
Q9·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
A person can walk a certain distance and drive back in six hours. He can also walk both ways in 10 hours. How much time will he take to drive both ways?
Correct: A
Walking both ways takes 10 hours, so walking one way takes 5 hours. Walking one way and driving back takes 6 hours, so driving one way takes 1 hour. Driving both ways takes 2 hours.
Q10·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
The tank-full petrol in Arun's motor-cycle lasts for 10 days. If he starts using 25% more everyday, how many days will the tank-full petrol last?
Correct: D
A full tank equals 10 days of the old daily use. If daily use rises by 25%, the new daily use is 1.25 times the old use. Duration = 10/1.25 = 8 days.
Q11·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
In a garrison, there was food for 1000 soldiers for one month. After 10 days, 1000 more soldiers joined the garrison. How long would the soldiers be able to carry on with the remaining food?
Correct: D
Food for 1000 soldiers for 30 days equals 30,000 soldier-days. After 10 days, 20,000 soldier-days remain. With 2000 soldiers present, the remaining food lasts 20,000/2000 = 10 days.
Q12·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
Out of 120 applications for a post, 70 are male and 80 have a driver's license. What is the ratio between the minimum to maximum number of males having driver's license?
Correct: C
There are 70 males, 50 females and 80 licence-holders. Minimum males with licence occurs when all 50 females have licences, leaving 30 males. Maximum is 70 males. The ratio is 30:70 = 3:7.
Q13·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
A sum of Rs. 700 has to be used to give seven cash prizes to the students of a school for their overall academic performance. If each prize is Rs. 20 less than its preceding prize, what is the least value of the prize?
Correct: B
Let the seven prizes be a, a-20, a-40, ..., a-120. Their sum is 7a - 420 = 700, so a = 160. The least prize is 160 - 120 = Rs. 40.
Q14·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
A gardener has 1000 plants. He wants to plant them in such a way that the number of rows and the number of columns remains the same. What is the minimum number of plants that he needs more for this purpose?
Correct: B
He needs a square arrangement with equal rows and columns. The next perfect square after 1000 is 32^2 = 1024, so he needs 1024 - 1000 = 24 more plants.
Q15·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
In a rare coin collection, there is one gold coin for every three non-gold coins. 10 more gold coins are added to the collection and the ratio of gold coins to non-gold coins would be 1:2. Based on the information, the total number of coins in the collection now becomes
Correct: A
Let the initial number of gold coins be x and non-gold coins be 3x. After adding 10 gold coins, (x+10):3x = 1:2. So 2x + 20 = 3x, giving x = 20. The new total is 30 gold plus 60 non-gold = 90.
Q16·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Ecological research over the last quarter of the century has established the deleterious effects of habitat fragmentation due to mining, highways and such other intrusions on forests. When a large block of forests gets fragmented into smaller bits, the edges of all these bits come into contact with human activities resulting in the degradation of the entire forests. Continuity of forested landscapes and corridors gets disrupted affecting several extinction-prone species of wildlife. Habitat fragmentation is therefore considered as the most serious threat to biodiversity conservation. Ad hoc grants of forest lands to mining companies coupled with rampant illegal mining is aggravating this threat. Question: What is the purpose of maintaining the continuity of forested landscapes and corridors? 1. Preservation of biodiversity. 2. Management of mineral resources. 3. Grant of forest lands for human activities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct: A
The passage says disruption of forest continuity affects extinction-prone wildlife and is a serious threat to biodiversity conservation. The purpose of maintaining continuity and corridors is preservation of biodiversity, not mineral-resource management or granting forest land.
Q17·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Ecological research over the last quarter of the century has established the deleterious effects of habitat fragmentation due to mining, highways and such other intrusions on forests. When a large block of forests gets fragmented into smaller bits, the edges of all these bits come into contact with human activities resulting in the degradation of the entire forests. Continuity of forested landscapes and corridors gets disrupted affecting several extinction-prone species of wildlife. Habitat fragmentation is therefore considered as the most serious threat to biodiversity conservation. Ad hoc grants of forest lands to mining companies coupled with rampant illegal mining is aggravating this threat. Question: What is the central focus of this passage?
Correct: D
The passage repeatedly discusses fragmentation of forest habitat by mining, highways and other intrusions, and its effects on biodiversity. The central focus is therefore disruption of habitat.
Q18·CSAT·2013·Non-Verbal Reasoning
Consider six figures in a sequence, followed by a question mark for the 7th position. Each figure is a circle containing a smaller central shape and three curved arrows around it. Figures 1, 3 and 5 have a central small circle; figures 2, 4 and 6 have a central small square. The three curved arrows rotate positions from figure to figure in a regular clockwise pattern. Which figure would logically come in the 7th position?
Correct: D
The central shape alternates circle, square, circle, square and so on, so the seventh has a central circle. The arrows continue their clockwise positional cycle, matching the option with arrows at upper-left, right and bottom-left.
Q19·CSAT·2013·Data Interpretation
Directions: Study the two figures and answer the items that follow. Figure 1, number of professors in selected disciplines by sex: Physics male 32 female 8; Mathematics male 28 female 8; Chemistry male 16 female 22; Botany male 10 female 14; Psychology male 4 female 6; Economics male 24 female 8. Figure 2, age distribution of Physics professors: age 35-44 = 40%, age 25-34 = 30%, age 60-65 = 10%, age 45-59 = 20%. If the Psychology professors in the University constitute 2% of all professors in the University, then what is the number of professors in the University?
Correct: B
Psychology professors total 4 + 6 = 10. If this is 2% of all professors in the University, total professors = 10 / 0.02 = 500.
Q20·CSAT·2013·Data Interpretation
Directions: Study the two figures and answer the items that follow. Figure 1, number of professors in selected disciplines by sex: Physics male 32 female 8; Mathematics male 28 female 8; Chemistry male 16 female 22; Botany male 10 female 14; Psychology male 4 female 6; Economics male 24 female 8. Figure 2, age distribution of Physics professors: age 35-44 = 40%, age 25-34 = 30%, age 60-65 = 10%, age 45-59 = 20%. Question: If the number of female Physics professors in the age group 25-34 equals 25% of all the Physics professors in that age group, then what is the number of male Physics professors in the age group 25-34?
Correct: A
Physics professors total 40, and 30% are aged 25-34, so that age group has 12 professors. Female professors are 25% of 12 = 3, leaving 9 male professors.
Q21·CSAT·2013·Data Interpretation
Directions: Study the two figures and answer the items that follow. Figure 1, number of professors in selected disciplines by sex: Physics male 32 female 8; Mathematics male 28 female 8; Chemistry male 16 female 22; Botany male 10 female 14; Psychology male 4 female 6; Economics male 24 female 8. Figure 2, age distribution of Physics professors: age 35-44 = 40%, age 25-34 = 30%, age 60-65 = 10%, age 45-59 = 20%. What percentage of all Psychology professors are females?
Correct: C
Psychology has 4 male and 6 female professors, total 10. Female percentage = 6/10 x 100 = 60%.
Q22·CSAT·2013·Data Interpretation
Directions: Study the two figures and answer the items that follow. Figure 1, number of professors in selected disciplines by sex: Physics male 32 female 8; Mathematics male 28 female 8; Chemistry male 16 female 22; Botany male 10 female 14; Psychology male 4 female 6; Economics male 24 female 8. Figure 2, age distribution of Physics professors: age 35-44 = 40%, age 25-34 = 30%, age 60-65 = 10%, age 45-59 = 20%. Which one of the following disciplines has the highest ratio of males to females?
Correct: A
Male-to-female ratios are Physics 32:8 = 4, Mathematics 28:8 = 3.5, Chemistry 16:22, and Economics 24:8 = 3. Physics has the highest ratio.
Q23·CSAT·2013·Data Interpretation
Directions: Study the two figures and answer the items that follow. Figure 1, number of professors in selected disciplines by sex: Physics male 32 female 8; Mathematics male 28 female 8; Chemistry male 16 female 22; Botany male 10 female 14; Psychology male 4 female 6; Economics male 24 female 8. Figure 2, age distribution of Physics professors: age 35-44 = 40%, age 25-34 = 30%, age 60-65 = 10%, age 45-59 = 20%. How many Physics professors belong to the age group 35-44?
Correct: B
Physics professors total 32 male + 8 female = 40. The 35-44 age group is 40% of Physics professors, so 0.40 x 40 = 16.
Q24·CSAT·2013·Non-Verbal Reasoning
A cube has six numbers marked 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 on its faces. Three views of the cube are shown. View 1: top face 1, front face 6, right face 4. View 2: top face 3, front face 1, right face 2. View 3: top face 3, front face 5, right face 6. In another view, the right face is 5, the front face is marked A and the top face is marked B. What possible numbers can exist on the two faces marked A and B, respectively, on the cube?
Correct: A
From the three cube views, face 1 is adjacent to 6, 4, 3 and 2, so 5 is opposite 1. Face 3 is adjacent to 1, 2, 5 and 6, so 4 is opposite 3; the remaining opposite pair is 2 and 6. With 5 on the right face, the possible visible arrangement among the options is front 2 and top 3.
Q25·CSAT·2013·Non-Verbal Reasoning
Examine the following three L-shaped number figures in which the numbers follow a specific pattern: Figure 1 has top-left 84, bottom-left 14, bottom-right 12. Figure 2 has top-left 81, bottom-left 18, bottom-right 9. Figure 3 has top-left 88, bottom-left?, bottom-right 11. The missing number (?) in the third figure is:
Correct: B
The pattern is top-left number = (bottom-left number x bottom-right number) / 2. Thus 84 = 14 x 12 / 2 and 81 = 18 x 9 / 2. For the third figure, 88 = ? x 11 / 2, so ? = 16.
Q26·CSAT·2013·Data Interpretation
Four cars are hired at the rate of Rs. 6 per km plus the cost of diesel at Rs. 40 a litre. In this context, consider the details given in the following table: Car A: Mileage 8 km/l, Hours 20, Total Payment Rs. 2120; Car B: Mileage 10 km/l, Hours 25, Total Payment Rs. 1950; Car C: Mileage 9 km/l, Hours 24, Total Payment Rs. 2064; Car D: Mileage 11 km/l, Hours 22, Total Payment Rs. 1812. Which car maintained the maximum average speed?
Correct: A
For each car, payment per km equals Rs. 6 plus diesel cost per km. Car A: Rs. 11/km, distance about 192.7 km, speed about 9.64 km/hr. The other cars have lower average speeds, so Car A is maximum.
Q27·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following matrix: 3 370 7; 2 224 6; 1 730 X. What is the number at 'X' in the above matrix?
Correct: C
Each middle number equals the sum of the cubes of the two outer numbers: 3^3 + 7^3 = 370 and 2^3 + 6^3 = 224. Thus 1^3 + X^3 = 730, so X^3 = 729 and X = 9.
Q28·CSAT·2013·Non-Verbal Reasoning
Consider four x-y diagrams where x is men and y is days. Diagram I is a straight line sloping downwards from high y at low x to low y at high x. Diagram II is a straight line sloping upwards. Diagram III is an L-shaped step curve. Diagram IV is a decreasing rectangular-hyperbola-like curve. x men, working at constant speed, do a certain job in y days. Which diagram shows the relation between x and y?
Correct: D
For a fixed amount of work at constant speed, men and days are inversely proportional: x multiplied by y is constant. The graph of y against x is therefore a decreasing rectangular hyperbola, not a straight line.
Q29·CSAT·2013·Non-Verbal Reasoning
Problem figures follow a sequence inside circles. Figure 1 has three vertical elements with an upward arrow on the middle element, a short bottom-left hook, and a right vertical line. Figure 2 has an upward arrow on the left element, an L-shaped element in the middle, and a right vertical line. Figure 3 has a left vertical line, a middle L-shaped element, and a downward arrow on the right element. Figure 4 has a left vertical line, a middle vertical line, and a downward arrow on the right element. Which answer figure should appear as the fifth figure?
Correct: B
The arrow shifts across the three vertical positions and changes direction according to the given sequence, while the bracket-like elements cycle with it. The next stage is the option with a downward arrow on the left and the central/right bracket-like vertical elements.
Q30·CSAT·2013·Non-Verbal Reasoning
Problem figures follow a sequence. Figure 1: upright triangle with a circled plus above it and a downward arrow inside. Figure 2: triangle rotated left with an upward arrow inside and a circled plus at lower right. Figure 3: triangle rotated right with a downward arrow inside and a circled plus at lower left. Figure 4: upright triangle with a circled plus above it and an upward arrow inside. Which answer figure should appear as the fifth figure?
Correct: C
The outer triangle orientation and the circled plus repeat the position pattern seen from figure 1 to figure 4, while the arrow alternates direction. The fifth figure therefore returns to the left-rotated triangle with a downward arrow and the circled plus at lower right.
Q31·CSAT·2013·Non-Verbal Reasoning
Consider four square-grid figures numbered 1 to 4. Each grid has two symbols: a small triangle and a small crown/sun symbol. From figures 1 to 4, the two symbols change positions in a regular direction across the diamond cells of the grid. Which option will appear at the fifth stage?
Correct: B
Across the four grid figures, the two symbols move through the diamond cells in a fixed sequence. Continuing the same positional movement places the crown/sun at the top diamond and the triangle in the lower-left corner diamond.
Q32·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only. Until man's nature changes, his physical needs will always arise, and miseries will always be felt, and no amount of physical help will remove them completely. The only solution of the problem is to make mankind pure. Ignorance is the mother of evil and of all the misery we see. Let men have light, let them be pure and spiritually strong and educated; then alone will misery cease in the world. We may convert every house in the country into a charitable asylum, we may fill the land with hospitals, but human misery will continue until man's character changes. Question: With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. The author gives primary importance to physical and material help in eradicating human misery. 2. Charitable homes, hospitals, etc. can remove human misery to a great extent. Which of the assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: D
The author explicitly argues against physical help as the primary solution and says even charitable asylums and hospitals cannot end misery unless character changes. Therefore neither assumption is valid.
Q33·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only. Until man's nature changes, his physical needs will always arise, and miseries will always be felt, and no amount of physical help will remove them completely. The only solution of the problem is to make mankind pure. Ignorance is the mother of evil and of all the misery we see. Let men have light, let them be pure and spiritually strong and educated; then alone will misery cease in the world. We may convert every house in the country into a charitable asylum, we may fill the land with hospitals, but human misery will continue until man's character changes. Question: According to the passage, which of the following statements is most likely to be true as the reason for man's miseries?
Correct: B
The passage repeatedly says physical help alone cannot end misery and that misery will continue until man's nature or character changes. Hence the reason is man's refusal or failure to change his character.
Q34·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation. The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus based, from agricultural runoff and human sewage has caused many healthy oligotrophic lakes to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton productivity. This makes the water turbid, eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and fish kills; so-called cultural eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem services are lost, including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural services associated with recreation. The process of cultural eutrophication of lakes has been understood for some time. But only recently did scientists notice huge dead zones in the oceans near river outlets, particularly those draining large catchment areas such as the Mississippi in North America and the Yangtze in China. The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and eventually to the estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 sq km in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are now regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilizers and sewage from large cities. Oceanic dead zones are typically associated with industrialized nations and usually lie off countries that subsidize their agriculture, encouraging farmers to increase productivity and use more fertilizer. Question: What is the central theme of this passage?
Correct: C
The passage is mainly about how agricultural slurry, fertilizer runoff and sewage add excess nutrients to water bodies, causing eutrophication, dead zones and loss of aquatic life. That makes improper agricultural waste disposal destroying aquatic ecosystems the central theme.
Q35·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation. The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus based, from agricultural runoff and human sewage has caused many healthy oligotrophic lakes to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton productivity. This makes the water turbid, eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and fish kills; so-called cultural eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem services are lost, including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural services associated with recreation. The process of cultural eutrophication of lakes has been understood for some time. But only recently did scientists notice huge dead zones in the oceans near river outlets, particularly those draining large catchment areas such as the Mississippi in North America and the Yangtze in China. The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and eventually to the estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 sq km in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are now regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilizers and sewage from large cities. Oceanic dead zones are typically associated with industrialized nations and usually lie off countries that subsidize their agriculture, encouraging farmers to increase productivity and use more fertilizer. Question: What is/are the characteristics of a water body with cultural eutrophication? 1. Loss of ecosystem services 2. Loss of flora and fauna 3. Loss of mineral nutrients Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: B
Cultural eutrophication causes loss of ecosystem services and harms plants, fish and invertebrates. It is driven by excess mineral nutrients, not by loss of them.
Q36·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation. The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus based, from agricultural runoff and human sewage has caused many healthy oligotrophic lakes to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton productivity. This makes the water turbid, eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and fish kills; so-called cultural eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem services are lost, including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural services associated with recreation. The process of cultural eutrophication of lakes has been understood for some time. But only recently did scientists notice huge dead zones in the oceans near river outlets, particularly those draining large catchment areas such as the Mississippi in North America and the Yangtze in China. The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and eventually to the estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 sq km in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are now regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilizers and sewage from large cities. Oceanic dead zones are typically associated with industrialized nations and usually lie off countries that subsidize their agriculture, encouraging farmers to increase productivity and use more fertilizer. Question: According to the passage, what are the effects of indiscriminate use of fertilizers? 1. Addition of pollutants to the soil and water. 2. Destruction of decomposer microorganisms in soil. 3. Nutrient enrichment of water bodies. 4. Creation of algal blooms. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct: B
The passage says fertilizer runoff adds nutrient pollutants, enriches water bodies and fuels algal blooms. It does not say that fertilizers destroy decomposer microorganisms in soil.
Q37·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation. The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus based, from agricultural runoff and human sewage has caused many healthy oligotrophic lakes to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton productivity. This makes the water turbid, eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and fish kills; so-called cultural eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem services are lost, including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural services associated with recreation. The process of cultural eutrophication of lakes has been understood for some time. But only recently did scientists notice huge dead zones in the oceans near river outlets, particularly those draining large catchment areas such as the Mississippi in North America and the Yangtze in China. The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and eventually to the estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 sq km in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are now regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilizers and sewage from large cities. Oceanic dead zones are typically associated with industrialized nations and usually lie off countries that subsidize their agriculture, encouraging farmers to increase productivity and use more fertilizer. Question: The passage refers to the conversion of "pollutant to fertilizer". What is pollutant and what is fertilizer in this context?
Correct: B
Agricultural slurry discharged into watercourses is treated as a pollutant. When returned to land and decomposed by soil microorganisms, its nutrients become available to vegetation and it functions as fertilizer.
Q38·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
The law in many parts of the world increasingly restricts the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses. The simplest and often the most economically sound practice returns the material to the land as semisolid manure or as sprayed slurry. This dilutes its concentration in the environment to what might have occurred in a more primitive and sustainable type of agriculture and converts pollutant into fertilizer. Soil microorganisms decompose the organic components of sewage and slurry and most of the mineral nutrients become available to be absorbed again by the vegetation. The excess input of nutrients, both nitrogen and phosphorus based, from agricultural runoff and human sewage has caused many healthy oligotrophic lakes to change to eutrophic condition where high nutrient inputs lead to high phytoplankton productivity. This makes the water turbid, eliminates large plants and, in the worst situations, leads to anoxia and fish kills; so-called cultural eutrophication. Thus, important ecosystem services are lost, including the provisioning service of wild-caught fish and the cultural services associated with recreation. The process of cultural eutrophication of lakes has been understood for some time. But only recently did scientists notice huge dead zones in the oceans near river outlets, particularly those draining large catchment areas such as the Mississippi in North America and the Yangtze in China. The nutrient-enriched water flows through streams, rivers and lakes, and eventually to the estuary and ocean where the ecological impact may be huge, killing virtually all invertebrates and fish in areas up to 70,000 sq km in extent. More than 150 sea areas worldwide are now regularly starved of oxygen as a result of decomposition of algal blooms, fuelled particularly by nitrogen from agricultural runoff of fertilizers and sewage from large cities. Oceanic dead zones are typically associated with industrialized nations and usually lie off countries that subsidize their agriculture, encouraging farmers to increase productivity and use more fertilizer. Question: According to the passage, why should the discharge of agricultural slurry into watercourses be restricted? 1. Losing nutrients in this way is not a good practice economically. 2. Watercourses do not contain the microorganisms that can decompose organic components of agricultural slurry. 3. The discharge may lead to the eutrophication of water bodies. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Correct: C
Returning slurry to land is described as economically sound because nutrients are reused, so statement 1 is valid. The passage also links nutrient discharge/runoff with eutrophication, so statement 3 is valid. Statement 2 is not the reason given; the issue is excess nutrients, not absence of microorganisms.
Q39·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km and then travels a distance of 72 km at an average speed of 6 km/hr more than its original speed. If it takes 3 hours to complete the total journey, what is the original speed of the train in km/hr?
Correct: C
Let the original speed be x km/hr. Then 63/x + 72/(x+6) = 3. Solving gives x = 42, which satisfies 63/42 = 1.5 hours and 72/48 = 1.5 hours.
Q40·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
A thief running at 8 km/hr is chased by a policeman whose speed is 10 km/hr. If the thief is 100 m ahead of the policeman, then the time required for the policeman to catch the thief will be
Correct: B
The relative speed is 10 - 8 = 2 km/hr, which is 2000 metres per hour. To cover a 100 metre gap, time = 100/2000 hour = 0.05 hour = 3 minutes.
Q41·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
In a class of 45 students, a boy is ranked 20th. When two boys joined, his rank was dropped by one. What is his new rank from the end?
Correct: C
After two boys join, there are 47 students. His rank from the top becomes 21st, so his rank from the end is 47 - 21 + 1 = 27th.
Q42·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. It is a complex mixture of many different substances, each with its own individual qualities. Most of them are combinations of hydrogen and carbon in varying proportions. Such hydrocarbons are also found in other forms such as bitumen, asphalt and natural gas. Mineral oil originates from the carcasses of tiny animals and from plants that live in the sea. Over millions of years, these dead creatures form large deposits under the sea-bed; and ocean currents cover them with a blanket of sand and silt. As this mineral hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out the oxygen, so preventing the complete decomposition of the marine deposits underneath. The layers of sedimentary rock become thicker and heavier. Their pressure produces heat, which transforms the tiny carcasses into crude oil in a process that is still going on today. Question: Sedimentary rock leads to the formation of oil deposits because
Correct: C
The passage explains that sedimentary layers become thicker and heavier; their pressure produces heat, and this heat transforms the organic remains into crude oil.
Q43·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. It is a complex mixture of many different substances, each with its own individual qualities. Most of them are combinations of hydrogen and carbon in varying proportions. Such hydrocarbons are also found in other forms such as bitumen, asphalt and natural gas. Mineral oil originates from the carcasses of tiny animals and from plants that live in the sea. Over millions of years, these dead creatures form large deposits under the sea-bed; and ocean currents cover them with a blanket of sand and silt. As this mineral hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out the oxygen, so preventing the complete decomposition of the marine deposits underneath. The layers of sedimentary rock become thicker and heavier. Their pressure produces heat, which transforms the tiny carcasses into crude oil in a process that is still going on today. Question: Mineral oil deposits under the sea do not get completely decomposed because they
Correct: B
The passage says the mineral hardens into sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out oxygen, preventing complete decomposition of the marine deposits underneath.
Q44·CSAT·2013·Logical Reasoning
There are some balls of red, green and yellow colour lying on a table. There are as many red balls as there are yellow balls. There are twice as many yellow balls as there are green ones. The number of red balls
Correct: B
Let the number of green balls be x. The yellow balls are 2x, and the red balls are equal to the yellow balls, so red balls are also 2x. Therefore red balls are double the number of green balls.
Q45·CSAT·2013·Logical Reasoning
Seven men, A, B, C, D, E, F and G are standing in a queue in that order. Each one is wearing a cap of a different colour like violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange and red. D is able to see in front of him green and blue, but not violet. E can see violet and yellow, but not red. G can see caps of all colours other than orange. If E is wearing an indigo coloured cap, then the colour of the cap worn by F is:
Correct: C
G can see all caps except orange, so G himself must be wearing orange. E wears indigo and cannot see red among A, B, C and D. Since red is not on E or G and is not among the four people seen by E, it must be on F.
Q46·CSAT·2013·Logical Reasoning
A, B, C, D and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R, S and T, not necessarily in that order. Each one of them comes from a different city. Further, it is given that: 1. B and C do not belong to Q. 2. B and E do not belong to P and R. 3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T. 4. D and E do not belong to Q and T. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Correct: D
From condition 3, C can only be P because C is not Q from condition 1 and not R, S or T from condition 3. Then A must be Q. B cannot be P, Q or R, so B is S or T. E cannot be P, Q, R or T, so E is S. Hence B is T and D is R. The statement "B belongs to S" is not correct.
Q47·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
There are five hobby clubs in a college viz., photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days?
Correct: A
The common meeting interval is the LCM of 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 days, which is 60 days. Within 180 days they all meet together on the 60th, 120th and 180th days, so the count is 3.
Q48·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Financial markets in India have acquired greater depth and liquidity over the years. Steady reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages and integration of the Indian economy and its financial system with the global economy. Weak global economic prospects and continuing uncertainties in the international financial markets, therefore, have had their impact on the emerging market economies. Sovereign risk concerns, particularly in the Euro area, affected financial markets for the greater part of the year, with the contagion of Greece's sovereign debt problem spreading to India and other economies by way of higher-than-normal levels of volatility. The funding constraints in international financial markets could impact both the availability and cost of foreign funding for banks and corporates. Since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability. Indian banks, however, remain robust, notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-weighted assets ratio and a rise in non-performing asset levels in the recent past. Capital adequacy levels remain above the regulatory requirements. The financial market infrastructure continues to function without any major disruption. With further consolidation, globalization, deregulation and diversification of the financial system, the banking business may become more complex and riskier. Issues like risk and liquidity management and enhancing skill therefore assume greater significance. Question: Risk and liquidity management assumes more importance in the Indian banking system in future due to 1. further globalization. 2. more consolidation and deregulation of the financial system. 3. further diversification of the financial system. 4. more financial inclusion in the economy. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: A
The passage links greater importance of risk and liquidity management to further consolidation, globalization, deregulation and diversification. Financial inclusion is not given as a reason in the passage.
Q49·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Financial markets in India have acquired greater depth and liquidity over the years. Steady reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages and integration of the Indian economy and its financial system with the global economy. Weak global economic prospects and continuing uncertainties in the international financial markets, therefore, have had their impact on the emerging market economies. Sovereign risk concerns, particularly in the Euro area, affected financial markets for the greater part of the year, with the contagion of Greece's sovereign debt problem spreading to India and other economies by way of higher-than-normal levels of volatility. The funding constraints in international financial markets could impact both the availability and cost of foreign funding for banks and corporates. Since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability. Indian banks, however, remain robust, notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-weighted assets ratio and a rise in non-performing asset levels in the recent past. Capital adequacy levels remain above the regulatory requirements. The financial market infrastructure continues to function without any major disruption. With further consolidation, globalization, deregulation and diversification of the financial system, the banking business may become more complex and riskier. Issues like risk and liquidity management and enhancing skill therefore assume greater significance. Question: According to the passage, in the Indian financial system, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to ensure overall financial stability because the Indian financial system is:
Correct: D
The passage explicitly says that since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability.
Q50·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Financial markets in India have acquired greater depth and liquidity over the years. Steady reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages and integration of the Indian economy and its financial system with the global economy. Weak global economic prospects and continuing uncertainties in the international financial markets, therefore, have had their impact on the emerging market economies. Sovereign risk concerns, particularly in the Euro area, affected financial markets for the greater part of the year, with the contagion of Greece's sovereign debt problem spreading to India and other economies by way of higher-than-normal levels of volatility. The funding constraints in international financial markets could impact both the availability and cost of foreign funding for banks and corporates. Since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability. Indian banks, however, remain robust, notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-weighted assets ratio and a rise in non-performing asset levels in the recent past. Capital adequacy levels remain above the regulatory requirements. The financial market infrastructure continues to function without any major disruption. With further consolidation, globalization, deregulation and diversification of the financial system, the banking business may become more complex and riskier. Issues like risk and liquidity management and enhancing skill therefore assume greater significance. Question: The Indian financial markets are affected by global changes mainly due to the
Correct: C
The opening lines connect India's exposure to global changes with growing linkages and integration of the Indian economy and financial system with the global economy.
Q51·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Financial markets in India have acquired greater depth and liquidity over the years. Steady reforms since 1991 have led to growing linkages and integration of the Indian economy and its financial system with the global economy. Weak global economic prospects and continuing uncertainties in the international financial markets, therefore, have had their impact on the emerging market economies. Sovereign risk concerns, particularly in the Euro area, affected financial markets for the greater part of the year, with the contagion of Greece's sovereign debt problem spreading to India and other economies by way of higher-than-normal levels of volatility. The funding constraints in international financial markets could impact both the availability and cost of foreign funding for banks and corporates. Since the Indian financial system is bank dominated, banks' ability to withstand stress is critical to overall financial stability. Indian banks, however, remain robust, notwithstanding a decline in capital to risk-weighted assets ratio and a rise in non-performing asset levels in the recent past. Capital adequacy levels remain above the regulatory requirements. The financial market infrastructure continues to function without any major disruption. With further consolidation, globalization, deregulation and diversification of the financial system, the banking business may become more complex and riskier. Issues like risk and liquidity management and enhancing skill therefore assume greater significance. Question: According to the passage, the financial markets in the emerging market economies including India had adverse impact in recent years due to 1. weak global economic prospects. 2. uncertainties in the international financial markets. 3. sovereign risk concerns in the Euro area. 4. bad monsoons and the resultant crop loss. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: B
The passage directly names weak global prospects, international financial-market uncertainties and Euro-area sovereign risk concerns. It does not mention bad monsoons or crop loss as a cause.
Q52·CSAT·2013·Logical Reasoning
Geeta is older than her cousin Meena. Meena's brother Bipin is older than Geeta. When Meena and Bipin visit Geeta, they like to play chess. Meena wins the game more often than Geeta. Based on the above information, four conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically follows from the information given above?
Correct: D
The age facts give Bipin older than Geeta, and Geeta older than Meena. Therefore Meena is the youngest; the chess results do not establish any of the other conclusions.
Q53·CSAT·2013·Logical Reasoning
Context: Out of four friends A, B, C and D, A and B play football and cricket, B and C play cricket and hockey, A and D play basketball and football, and C and D play hockey and basketball. Question: Which game do B, C and D play?
Correct: B
B and C play cricket and hockey, while C and D play hockey and basketball. The game common to B, C and D is hockey.
Q54·CSAT·2013·Logical Reasoning
Context: Out of four friends A, B, C and D, A and B play football and cricket, B and C play cricket and hockey, A and D play basketball and football, and C and D play hockey and basketball. Question: Who plays football, basketball and hockey?
Correct: A
From the shared sports data, D plays basketball and football with A, and D also plays hockey and basketball with C. Therefore D is the only friend who plays football, basketball and hockey.
Q55·CSAT·2013·Logical Reasoning
Out of four friends A, B, C and D, A and B play football and cricket, B and C play cricket and hockey, A and D play basketball and football, C and D play hockey and basketball. Who does not play hockey?
Correct: D
A plays football and cricket, but not hockey. B and C play hockey through the cricket-hockey pairing, and D plays hockey through the hockey-basketball pairing.
Q56·CSAT·2013·Logical Reasoning
Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs. (i) C is seated next to A. (ii) A is seated two seats from D. (iii) B is not seated next to A. Which of the following must be true? (I) D is seated next to B. (II) E is seated next to A. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Correct: C
With five equally spaced seats, C is next to A, A is two seats from D, and B is not next to A. The only arrangement forces D next to B and E next to A, so both statements are true.
Q57·CSAT·2013·Data Interpretation
The music director of a film wants to select four persons to work on different aspects of the composition of a piece of music. Seven persons are available for this work; they are Rohit, Tanya, Shobha, Kaushal, Kunal, Mukesh and Jaswant. Rohit and Tanya will not work together. Kunal and Shobha will not work together. Mukesh and Kunal want to work together. Which of the following is the most acceptable group of people that can be selected by the music director?
Correct: C
Mukesh and Kunal must work together; Kunal cannot work with Shobha; Rohit and Tanya cannot work together. The group Tanya, Mukesh, Kunal and Jaswant satisfies all conditions.
Q58·CSAT·2013·General Mental Ability
Context: A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for a tournament. Seven players are available: males A, B and C, and females W, X, Y and Z. All players have equal capability and at least 2 males will be in the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other. B cannot play with W, C cannot play with Z, and W cannot play with Y. Question: If all the three males are selected, then how many combinations of four member teams are possible?
Correct: B
If A, B and C are selected, one female must be added. B cannot play with W and C cannot play with Z, so W and Z are excluded. X or Y can be added, giving 2 possible teams.
Q59·CSAT·2013·General Mental Ability
Context: A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for a tournament. Seven players are available: males A, B and C, and females W, X, Y and Z. All players have equal capability and at least 2 males will be in the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other. B cannot play with W, C cannot play with Z, and W cannot play with Y. Question: If B is selected and Y is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the following groups?
Correct: C
With B selected and Y rejected, B cannot play with W, and C cannot play with Z. To satisfy at least two males and compatibility, the workable team is A, B, C and X.
Q60·CSAT·2013·General Mental Ability
Context: A tennis coach is trying to put together a team of four players for a tournament. Seven players are available: males A, B and C, and females W, X, Y and Z. All players have equal capability and at least 2 males will be in the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other. B cannot play with W, C cannot play with Z, and W cannot play with Y. Question: If Y is selected and B is rejected, the team will consist of which one of the following groups?
Correct: B
With Y selected and B rejected, at least two males are still needed, so A and C must be selected. C cannot play with Z, and W cannot play with Y, so the compatible female with Y is X. Team: A, C, X and Y.
Q61·CSAT·2013·General Mental Ability
Context: Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. S and R are connected by bus and boat. Q and T are connected by air only. P and R are connected by boat only. T and R are connected by rail and bus. Question: Between which two cities among the pairs of cities given below are there maximum travel options available?
Correct: A
Q to S can be done through Q-P-R-S using boat/rail combinations and through Q-T-R-S using air plus rail/bus/boat options, giving more route/mode choices than the other listed pairs.
Q62·CSAT·2013·General Mental Ability
Context: Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. S and R are connected by bus and boat. Q and T are connected by air only. P and R are connected by boat only. T and R are connected by rail and bus. Question: Which one of the following pairs of cities is connected by any of the routes directly without going to any other city?
Correct: D
P-T, T-S and Q-R are not directly connected in the given transport list. Therefore none of the listed pairs has a direct route.
Q63·CSAT·2013·General Mental Ability
Context: Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. S and R are connected by bus and boat. Q and T are connected by air only. P and R are connected by boat only. T and R are connected by rail and bus. Question: If a person visits each of the places starting from P and gets back to P, which of the following places must he visit twice?
Correct: B
The network forces R to act as the connecting hub between the P/Q side and S/T side for a full circuit returning to P. Hence R must be visited twice.
Q64·CSAT·2013·General Mental Ability
Context: Five cities P, Q, R, S and T are connected by different modes of transport as follows: P and Q are connected by boat as well as rail. S and R are connected by bus and boat. Q and T are connected by air only. P and R are connected by boat only. T and R are connected by rail and bus. Question: Which mode of transport would help one to reach R starting from Q, but without changing the mode of transport?
Correct: A
Q connects to P by boat and rail, and P connects to R by boat. Thus Q to P to R can be done entirely by boat without changing mode.
Q65·CSAT·2013·Quantitative Aptitude
Four friends, A, B, C and D distribute some money among themselves in such a manner that A gets one less than B, C gets 5 more than D, D gets 3 more than B. Who gets the smallest amount?
Correct: A
Let B = x. Then A = x-1, D = x+3, and C = D+5 = x+8. A is the smallest.
Q66·CSAT·2013·Critical Reasoning
Consider the following statements (i) A primary group is relatively smaller in size. (ii) Intimacy is an essential characteristic of a primary group. (iii) A family may be an example of a primary group. In the light of the above statements, which one of the following is true?
Correct: D
The statements define primary groups as relatively small and intimate, with family as an example. Therefore the necessarily true conclusion is that members of a primary group know one another intimately.
Q67·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
A number of empirical studies find that farmers are risk-averse, though only moderately in many cases. There is also evidence to show that farmers' risk aversion results in cropping patterns and input use designed to reduce risk rather than to maximize income. Farmers adopt a number of strategies to manage and cope with agricultural risks. These include practices like crop and field diversification, non-farm employment, storage of stocks and strategic migration of family members. There are also institutions ranging from share tenancy to kinship, extended family and informal credit agencies. One major obstacle to risk sharing by farmers is that the same type of risks can affect a large number of farmers in the region. Empirical studies show that the traditional methods are not adequate. Hence there is a need for policy interventions, especially measures that cut across geographical regions. Policies may aim at tackling agricultural risks directly or indirectly. Examples of risk-specific policies are crop insurance, price stabilization and the development of varieties resistant to pests and diseases. Policies which affect risk indirectly are irrigation, subsidized credit and access to information. No single risk-specific policy is sufficient to reduce risk and is without side-effects, whereas policies not specific to risk influence the general situation and affect risks only indirectly. Crop insurance, as a policy measure to tackle agricultural risk directly, deserves careful consideration in the Indian context and in many other developing countries because the majority of farmers depend on rain-fed agriculture and in many areas yield variability is the predominant cause of their income instability. Question: Which of the following observations emerges from the above passage?
Correct: B
The passage states that no single risk-specific policy is sufficient and without side effects. Therefore agricultural risk needs a mix of policy measures rather than one complete solution.
Q68·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
A number of empirical studies find that farmers are risk-averse, though only moderately in many cases. There is also evidence to show that farmers' risk aversion results in cropping patterns and input use designed to reduce risk rather than to maximize income. Farmers adopt a number of strategies to manage and cope with agricultural risks. These include practices like crop and field diversification, non-farm employment, storage of stocks and strategic migration of family members. There are also institutions ranging from share tenancy to kinship, extended family and informal credit agencies. One major obstacle to risk sharing by farmers is that the same type of risks can affect a large number of farmers in the region. Empirical studies show that the traditional methods are not adequate. Hence there is a need for policy interventions, especially measures that cut across geographical regions. Policies may aim at tackling agricultural risks directly or indirectly. Examples of risk-specific policies are crop insurance, price stabilization and the development of varieties resistant to pests and diseases. Policies which affect risk indirectly are irrigation, subsidized credit and access to information. No single risk-specific policy is sufficient to reduce risk and is without side-effects, whereas policies not specific to risk influence the general situation and affect risks only indirectly. Crop insurance, as a policy measure to tackle agricultural risk directly, deserves careful consideration in the Indian context and in many other developing countries - because the majority of farmers depend on rain-fed agriculture and in many areas yield variability is the predominant cause of their income instability. Question: The need for policy intervention to mitigate risks in agriculture is because
Correct: C
The passage explicitly says traditional methods and existing informal institutions are inadequate because regional risks affect many farmers together. That is why policy intervention is needed.
Q69·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Malnutrition most commonly occurs between the ages of six months and two years. This happens despite the child's food requirements being less than that of an older child. Malnutrition is often attributed to poverty, but it has been found that even in households where adults eat adequate quantities of food, more than 50 per cent of children-under-five do not consume enough food. The child's dependence on someone else to feed him/her is primarily responsible for the malnutrition. Very often the mother is working and the responsibility of feeding the young child is left to an older sibling. It is therefore crucial to increase awareness regarding the child's food needs and how to satisfy them. Question: According to the author, poverty is not the main cause of malnutrition, but the fact that 1. taking care of younger ones is not a priority for working mothers. 2. awareness of nutritional needs is not propagated by the Public Health authorities. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: B
The author says poverty alone is not the main cause, and stresses awareness of children's food needs. The passage does not blame working mothers as lacking priority, but implies public awareness/propagation is inadequate.
Q70·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Malnutrition most commonly occurs between the ages of six months and two years. This happens despite the child's food requirements being less than that of an older child. Malnutrition is often attributed to poverty, but it has been found that even in households where adults eat adequate quantities of food, more than 50 per cent of children-under-five do not consume enough food. The child's dependence on someone else to feed him/her is primarily responsible for the malnutrition. Very often the mother is working and the responsibility of feeding the young child is left to an older sibling. It is therefore crucial to increase awareness regarding the child's food needs and how to satisfy them. Question: According to the passage, malnutrition in children can be reduced
Correct: C
The passage says malnutrition persists because children depend on others for feeding and awareness of young children's food needs is crucial. Knowing and satisfying those needs can reduce malnutrition.
Q71·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Corporate governance is based on principles such as conducting the business with integrity and fairness, being transparent with regard to all transactions, making all the necessary disclosures and decisions, complying with all the laws of the land, accountability and responsibility towards the stakeholders and commitment to conducting business in an ethical manner. Another point which is highlighted on corporate governance is the need for those in control to be able to distinguish between what are personal and corporate funds while managing a company. Fundamentally, there is a level of confidence that is associated with a company that is known to have good corporate governance. The presence of an active group of independent directors on the board contributes a great deal towards ensuring confidence in the market. Corporate governance is known to be one of the criteria that foreign institutional investors are increasingly depending on when deciding on which companies to invest in. It is also known to have a positive influence on the share price of the company. Having a clean image on the corporate governance front could also make it easier for companies to source capital at more reasonable costs. Unfortunately, corporate governance often becomes the centre of discussion only after the exposure of a large scam. Question: According to the passage, which of the following is/are the major benefit/benefits of good corporate governance? 1. Good corporate governance leads to increase in share price of the company. 2. A company with good corporate governance always increases its business turnover rapidly. 3. Good corporate governance is the main criterion for foreign institutional investors when they decide to buy a company. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct: A
The passage says good governance positively influences share price. It does not say turnover always rises rapidly or that governance is the main criterion for FII investment, only one of the criteria.
Q72·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
Corporate governance is based on principles such as conducting the business with integrity and fairness, being transparent with regard to all transactions, making all the necessary disclosures and decisions, complying with all the laws of the land, accountability and responsibility towards the stakeholders and commitment to conducting business in an ethical manner. Another point which is highlighted on corporate governance is the need for those in control to be able to distinguish between what are personal and corporate funds while managing a company. Fundamentally, there is a level of confidence that is associated with a company that is known to have good corporate governance. The presence of an active group of independent directors on the board contributes a great deal towards ensuring confidence in the market. Corporate governance is known to be one of the criteria that foreign institutional investors are increasingly depending on when deciding on which companies to invest in. It is also known to have a positive influence on the share price of the company. Having a clean image on the corporate governance front could also make it easier for companies to source capital at more reasonable costs. Unfortunately, corporate governance often becomes the centre of discussion only after the exposure of a large scam. Question: According to the passage, which of the following should be the practice/practices in good corporate governance? 1. Companies should always comply with labour and tax laws of the land. 2. Every company in the country should have a government representative as one of the independent directors on the board to ensure transparency. 3. The manager of a company should never invest his personal funds in the company. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct: A
Good corporate governance requires compliance with laws such as labour and tax laws. The passage does not require government representatives as independent directors, and it asks managers to distinguish personal and corporate funds, not never invest personal funds.
Q73·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
The subject of democracy has become severely muddled because of the way the rhetoric surrounding it has been used in recent years. There is, increasingly, an oddly confused dichotomy between those who want to 'impose' democracy on countries in the non-Western world (in these countries' 'own interest', of course) and those who are opposed to such 'imposition' (because of the respect for the countries' 'own ways'). But the entire language of 'imposition', used by both sides, is extraordinarily inappropriate since it makes the implicit assumption that democracy belongs exclusively to the West, taking it to be a quintessentially 'Western' idea which has originated and flourished only in the West. But the thesis and the pessimism it generates about the possibility of democratic practice in the world would be extremely hard to justify. There were several experiments in local democracy in ancient India. Indeed, in understanding the roots of democracy in the world, we have to take an interest in the history of people participation and public reasoning in different parts of the world. We have to look beyond thinking of democracy only in terms of European and American evolution. We would fail to understand the pervasive demands for participatory living, on which Aristotle spoke with far-reaching insight, if we take democracy to be a kind of a specialized cultural product of the West. It cannot, of course, be doubted that the institutional structure of the contemporary practice of democracy is largely the product of European and American experience over the last few centuries. This is extremely important to recognize since these developments in institutional formats were immensely innovative and ultimately effective. There can be little doubt that there is a major 'Western' achievement here. Question: With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Many of the non-Western countries are unable to have democracy because they take democracy to be a specialized cultural product of the West. 2. Western countries are always trying to impose democracy on non-Western countries. Which of the above is/are valid assumption/assumptions?
Correct: D
The passage criticizes the assumption that democracy is exclusively Western, but it does not say non-Western countries cannot have democracy because they think so, nor that Western countries are always imposing it. Neither assumption is valid.
Q74·CSAT·2013·Reading Comprehension
The subject of democracy has become severely muddled because of the way the rhetoric surrounding it has been used in recent years. There is, increasingly, an oddly confused dichotomy between those who want to 'impose' democracy on countries in the non-Western world (in these countries' 'own interest', of course) and those who are opposed to such 'imposition' (because of the respect for the countries' 'own ways'). But the entire language of 'imposition', used by both sides, is extraordinarily inappropriate since it makes the implicit assumption that democracy belongs exclusively to the West, taking it to be a quintessentially 'Western' idea which has originated and flourished only in the West. But the thesis and the pessimism it generates about the possibility of democratic practice in the world would be extremely hard to justify. There were several experiments in local democracy in ancient India. Indeed, in understanding the roots of democracy in the world, we have to take an interest in the history of people participation and public reasoning in different parts of the world. We have to look beyond thinking of democracy only in terms of European and American evolution. We would fail to understand the pervasive demands for participatory living, on which Aristotle spoke with far-reaching insight, if we take democracy to be a kind of a specialized cultural product of the West. It cannot, of course, be doubted that the institutional structure of the contemporary practice of democracy is largely the product of European and American experience over the last few centuries. This is extremely important to recognize since these developments in institutional formats were immensely innovative and ultimately effective. There can be little doubt that there is a major 'Western' achievement here. Question: Which of the following is closest to the view of democracy as mentioned in the above passage?
Correct: C
The passage rejects the idea that democracy belongs exclusively to the West, while acknowledging that contemporary democratic institutions owe much to European and American experience. Option C captures both parts.