68 CSAT questions from the official UPSC 2014 Prelims paper, each with the verified answer key and an explanation.
1–68 of 68
Q1·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Family context: A, B, C, D, E and F are members of a family. They are engineer, stenographer, doctor, draughtsman, lawyer and judge, not in order. A, the engineer, is married to the lady stenographer. The judge is married to the lawyer. F, the draughtsman, is the son of B and brother of E. C, the lawyer, is the daughter-in-law of D. E is the unmarried doctor. D is the grandmother of F. There are two married couples in the family. What is the profession of D?
Correct: B
Work through the family tree. F is the son of B and brother of E, and D is the grandmother of F — so B is D's son, and E is also B's son. C (the lawyer) is D's daughter-in-law, i.e. C is married to D's son B; since the judge is married to the lawyer, B is the judge. A (the engineer) is married to the lady stenographer, so the stenographer is A's wife. The two married couples are therefore (A, stenographer) and (B-judge, C-lawyer), which makes D — B's mother and A's wife — the stenographer. Hence D's profession is Stenographer.
Q2·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Which of the following is/are a couple/couples?
Correct: C
From the family relations: F is son of B, E is brother of F (so E is also B's son), and D is grandmother of F, so D is B's mother and A is D's husband (A, the engineer, is married to the lady stenographer D). C, the lawyer, is D's daughter-in-law, so C is married to D's son B; the judge is married to the lawyer, confirming B is the judge and C is his wife. The two couples are therefore A–D and B–C, i.e. both AD and BC.
Q3·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
What is the profession of B?
Correct: A
C (the lawyer) is the daughter-in-law of D, and the judge is married to the lawyer — so C's husband is the judge. Since F is the son of B and D is the grandmother of F, B is D's son, which makes B the son whose wife is the lawyer C. Therefore B is the judge (married to C). E is B's son and the unmarried doctor, and F (B's other son) is the draughtsman. Hence the profession of B is Judge.
Q4·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
For a charity show, the total tickets sold were 420. Half of these tickets were sold at the rate of Rs. 5 each, one-third at the rate of Rs. 3 each and the rest for Rs. 2 each. What was the total amount received?
Correct: C
Half of 420 tickets = 210 tickets at Rs.5 = Rs.1,050. One-third of 420 = 140 tickets at Rs.3 = Rs.420. Remaining tickets = 420 − 210 − 140 = 70 at Rs.2 = Rs.140. Total = 1,050 + 420 + 140 = Rs.1,610.
Q5·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If the 3rd day of a month is Monday, which one of the following will be the fifth day from 21st of this month?
Correct: C
If the 3rd is Monday, the 21st is 18 days later; 18 ÷ 7 leaves remainder 4, so the 21st = Monday + 4 = Friday. The fifth day from the 21st (i.e. after the 21st) is the 26th; 26 − 3 = 23, and 23 ÷ 7 leaves remainder 2, so the 26th = Monday + 2 = Wednesday.
Q6·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
Two cars start towards each other, from two places A and B which are at a distance of 160 km. They start at the same time 08:10 AM. If the speeds of the cars are 50 km and 30 km per hour respectively, they will meet each other at
Correct: A
10:10 AM. The cars move towards each other, so their relative speed is 50 + 30 = 80 km/h. Time to meet = 160/80 = 2 hours. Starting at 08:10 AM, they meet at 10:10 AM.
Q7·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
Location of B is north of A and location of C is east of A. The distances AB and AC are 5 km and 12 km respectively. The shortest distance (in km) between the locations B and C is on
Correct: B
13. Put A at the origin. B is 5 km north of A and C is 12 km east of A, so triangle ABC is right-angled at A. The shortest distance BC = sqrt(5^2 + 12^2) = sqrt(25 + 144) = sqrt(169) = 13 km.
Q8·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
In a row 'A' is in the 11th position from the left and 'B' is in the 10th position from the right. If 'A' and 'B' interchange, then 'A' becomes 18th from the left. How many persons are there in the row other than 'A' and 'B'?
Correct: C
25. Before interchange, A is 11th from the left. After A and B interchange, A occupies B's original position and becomes 18th from the left. Therefore B's original position was 18th from the left. B was also 10th from the right, so total persons = 18 + 10 - 1 = 27. Excluding A and B, the number of other persons is 25.
Q9·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Examine the following statements 1. George attends Music classes Monday. 2. He attends Mathematics classes on Wednesday. 3. His Literature classes are not on Friday. 4. He attends History classes on the day following the day of his Mathematics classes. 5. On Tuesday, he attends his Sports classes. If he attends just one subject in a day and his Sunday is free, then he is also free on
Correct: D
Friday. Place the fixed classes first: Music is on Monday, Sports on Tuesday, Mathematics on Wednesday, and History is on the day after Mathematics, so History is on Thursday. Literature is not on Friday, and Sunday is already free. The remaining possible class day for Literature is Saturday. Therefore Friday is also free.
Q10·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Four persons, Alok, Bhupesh, Chander and Dinesh have a total of Rs. 100 among themselves. Alok and Bhupesh between them have as much money as Chander and Dinesh between them, but Alok has more money than Bhupesh; and Chander has only half the money that Dinesh has. Alok has in fact Rs. 5 more than Dinesh has. Who has maximum amount of money?
Correct: A
Let Dinesh have D. Then Chander has D/2 and Alok has D + 5. Alok + Bhupesh = Chander + Dinesh = half of Rs.100 = Rs.50. From Chander + Dinesh = 50: D/2 + D = 50 ⇒ 1.5D = 50 ⇒ D = 33⅓. So Alok = 38⅓, Chander = 16⅔, and Bhupesh = 50 − 38⅓ = 11⅔. Alok has the maximum amount.
Q11·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
"If political leadership fails to emerge, there is likelihood of military taking over power in developing countries. Radical student groups or labour may try to raise revolution but they are not likely to compete with the military. Military intervention, rule, and withdrawal from politics is closely related to a society's level of political development." In the context of political development, the assumption in the above passage is that
Correct: B
The passage makes military intervention conditional: it occurs when political leadership fails to emerge. The underlying assumption is that the military steps in to fill the political vacuum created by weak leadership. The other options overstate the claim (military intervention is not called inevitable, and leadership is not declared ineffective in general).
Q12·CSAT·2014·Logical Reasoning
Given the statement: "Buses are the cause of more accidents than cars, and trucks cause fewer accidents than buses", which of the following conclusions can we draw?
Correct: D
The statement only compares accident counts across buses, cars and trucks. It says nothing about how many vehicles of each type are on the road, or about the care or skill of drivers. None of the listed conclusions follows.
Q13·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
The number of deaths among the army personnel is 8 in 1000, but among the civilian population it is 20 per 1000. Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from this statement?
Correct: D
The groups cannot be compared due to their heterogeneity. The army population and civilian population are not comparable samples: they differ in age profile, health screening, occupation, living conditions and selection criteria. A lower death rate in one selected group does not prove that joining the army is safer for the general population. The valid inference is that the two groups are heterogeneous.
Q14·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
The letters L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S and T in their order are substituted by nine integers 1 to 9 but not in that order. 4 is assigned to P. The difference between P and T is 5. The difference between N and T is 3. What is the integer assigned to N?
Correct: D
P is assigned 4. The difference between P and T is 5, so T = 4 + 5 = 9 (4 − 5 is not a positive digit). The difference between N and T is 3, so N = 9 − 3 = 6.
Q15·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
In a group of six women there are four dancers, four vocal musicians, one actress and three violinists. Girija and Vanaja are among the violinists while Jalaja and Shailaja do not know how to play on the violin. Shailaja and Tanuja are among the dancers. Jalaja, Vanaja, Shailaja and Tanuja are all vocal musicians and two of them are also violinists. If Pooja is an actress, who among the following is certainly a dancer and violinist?
Correct: D
The three violinists include Girija and Vanaja; Jalaja and Shailaja do not play the violin, so the third violinist must be Tanuja (the only remaining person among the six who is not ruled out). Tanuja is also among the dancers (with Shailaja). Therefore Tanuja is certainly both a dancer and a violinist.
Q16·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A question paper must have a question on one of the eight poets: A, B, C, D, E, F, G or H. The first four belong to the medieval period while the rest are considered modern poets. Generally, modern poets figure in the question paper in alternate years. Generally those who like H like G also; and those who like F like E also. The paper-setter does not like to ask about F as he has written a book on F, but he likes F. Last year, the paper contained a question on A. On the basis of the information given, this year's paper is most likely to contain a question on
Correct: B
Last year's question was on A, a medieval poet, and modern poets figure in alternate years — so this year's question is on a modern poet (E, F, G or H). The paper-setter avoids F. Of the remaining modern poets, the 'liking' chains given (whoever likes H also likes G; whoever likes F also likes E) point to E as the most likely choice, since the setter likes F and therefore also E. Hence this year's paper most likely contains a question on E.
Q17·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
Net profits are only 2.2% of their total assets for central public sector undertakings, lower than for the private corporate sector. While the public sector or the State-led entrepreneurship played an important role in India's industrialization, our evolving development needs, comparatively less-than-satisfactory performance of public sector enterprises, the maturing of our private sector, a much larger social base now available for expanding entrepreneurship and the growing institutional capabilities to enforce competition policies would suggest that the time has come to review the role of public sector. What should the portfolio composition of the government be? It should not remain static all times. The airline industry works well as a purely private affair. At the opposite end, rural roads, whose sparse traffic makes tolling unviable, have to be on the balance-sheet of the State. If the government did not own rural roads, they would not exist. Similarly, public health capital in our towns and cities will need to come from the public sector. Equally, preservation and improvement of forest cover will have to be a new priority for the public sector assets. Take the example of steel. With near-zero tariffs, India is a globally competitive market for the metal. Indian firms export steel into the global market, which demonstrates there is no gap in technology. Indian companies are buying up global steel companies, which shows there is no gap in capital availability. Under these conditions, private ownership works best. Private ownership is clearly desirable in regulated industries, ranging from finance to infrastructure, where a government agency performs the function of regulation and multiple competing firms are located in the private sector. Here, the simple and clean solution - government as the umpire and the private sector as the players - is what works best. In many of these industries, we have a legacy of government ownership, where productivity tends to be lower, fear of bankruptcy is absent, and the risk of asking for money from the taxpayer is ever present. There is also the conflict of interest between government as an owner and as the regulator. The formulation and implementation of competition policy will be more vigorous and fair if government companies are out of action. Question: The author prefers government as the umpire and private sector as players because
Correct: A
An umpire does not play the game; he enforces its rules so that the players compete fairly. The passage uses this analogy to argue that competition policy is more vigorous and fair when the government stays out of ownership and merely regulates, so that its norms ensure fair play by the private sector.
Q18·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
Net profits are only 2.2% of their total assets for central public sector undertakings, lower than for the private corporate sector. While the public sector or the State-led entrepreneurship played an important role in India's industrialization, our evolving development needs, comparatively less-than-satisfactory performance of public sector enterprises, the maturing of our private sector, a much larger social base now available for expanding entrepreneurship and the growing institutional capabilities to enforce competition policies would suggest that the time has come to review the role of public sector. What should the portfolio composition of the government be? It should not remain static all times. The airline industry works well as a purely private affair. At the opposite end, rural roads, whose sparse traffic makes tolling unviable, have to be on the balance-sheet of the State. If the government did not own rural roads, they would not exist. Similarly, public health capital in our towns and cities will need to come from the public sector. Equally, preservation and improvement of forest cover will have to be a new priority for the public sector assets. Take the example of steel. With near-zero tariffs, India is a globally competitive market for the metal. Indian firms export steel into the global market, which demonstrates there is no gap in technology. Indian companies are buying up global steel companies, which shows there is no gap in capital availability. Under these conditions, private ownership works best. Private ownership is clearly desirable in regulated industries, ranging from finance to infrastructure, where a government agency performs the function of regulation and multiple competing firms are located in the private sector. Here, the simple and clean solution - government as the umpire and the private sector as the players - is what works best. In many of these industries, we have a legacy of government ownership, where productivity tends to be lower, fear of bankruptcy is absent, and the risk of asking for money from the taxpayer is ever present. There is also the conflict of interest between government as an owner and as the regulator. The formulation and implementation of competition policy will be more vigorous and fair if government companies are out of action. Question: The portfolio composition of the government refers to
Correct: C
The passage asks what the government should own and what it should leave to the market: rural roads, public health capital and forest cover must stay on the public balance-sheet, while steel and airlines work best in private hands. Portfolio composition therefore refers to the mix of government investment across different industrial sectors.
Q19·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
Net profits are only 2.2% of their total assets for central public sector undertakings, lower than for the private corporate sector. While the public sector or the State-led entrepreneurship played an important role in India's industrialization, our evolving development needs, comparatively less-than-satisfactory performance of public sector enterprises, the maturing of our private sector, a much larger social base now available for expanding entrepreneurship and the growing institutional capabilities to enforce competition policies would suggest that the time has come to review the role of public sector. What should the portfolio composition of the government be? It should not remain static all times. The airline industry works well as a purely private affair. At the opposite end, rural roads, whose sparse traffic makes tolling unviable, have to be on the balance-sheet of the State. If the government did not own rural roads, they would not exist. Similarly, public health capital in our towns and cities will need to come from the public sector. Equally, preservation and improvement of forest cover will have to be a new priority for the public sector assets. Take the example of steel. With near-zero tariffs, India is a globally competitive market for the metal. Indian firms export steel into the global market, which demonstrates there is no gap in technology. Indian companies are buying up global steel companies, which shows there is no gap in capital availability. Under these conditions, private ownership works best. Private ownership is clearly desirable in regulated industries, ranging from finance to infrastructure, where a government agency performs the function of regulation and multiple competing firms are located in the private sector. Here, the simple and clean solution - government as the umpire and the private sector as the players - is what works best. In many of these industries, we have a legacy of government ownership, where productivity tends to be lower, fear of bankruptcy is absent, and the risk of asking for money from the taxpayer is ever present. There is also the conflict of interest between government as an owner and as the regulator. The formulation and implementation of competition policy will be more vigorous and fair if government companies are out of action. Question: According to the passage, rural roads should be in the domain of public sector only. Why?
Correct: B
The passage explains that rural roads carry sparse traffic, so tolling is unviable; if the government did not own them, they would not exist. Since a private firm cannot earn money from an asset that cannot be tolled, the private sector cannot have monetary gains here, which is why the State must own rural roads.
Q20·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
Net profits are only 2.2% of their total assets for central public sector undertakings, lower than for the private corporate sector. While the public sector or the State-led entrepreneurship played an important role in India's industrialization, our evolving development needs, comparatively less-than-satisfactory performance of public sector enterprises, the maturing of our private sector, a much larger social base now available for expanding entrepreneurship and the growing institutional capabilities to enforce competition policies would suggest that the time has come to review the role of public sector. What should the portfolio composition of the government be? It should not remain static all times. The airline industry works well as a purely private affair. At the opposite end, rural roads, whose sparse traffic makes tolling unviable, have to be on the balance-sheet of the State. If the government did not own rural roads, they would not exist. Similarly, public health capital in our towns and cities will need to come from the public sector. Equally, preservation and improvement of forest cover will have to be a new priority for the public sector assets. Take the example of steel. With near-zero tariffs, India is a globally competitive market for the metal. Indian firms export steel into the global market, which demonstrates there is no gap in technology. Indian companies are buying up global steel companies, which shows there is no gap in capital availability. Under these conditions, private ownership works best. Private ownership is clearly desirable in regulated industries, ranging from finance to infrastructure, where a government agency performs the function of regulation and multiple competing firms are located in the private sector. Here, the simple and clean solution - government as the umpire and the private sector as the players - is what works best. In many of these industries, we have a legacy of government ownership, where productivity tends to be lower, fear of bankruptcy is absent, and the risk of asking for money from the taxpayer is ever present. There is also the conflict of interest between government as an owner and as the regulator. The formulation and implementation of competition policy will be more vigorous and fair if government companies are out of action. Question: According to the passage, what is/are the reason/reasons for saying that the time has come to review the role of public sector? 1. Now public sector has lost its relevance in the industrialization process. 2. Public sector does not perform satisfactorily. 3. Entrepreneurship in private sector is expanding. 4. Effective competition policies are available now. Which of the statements given above is/are correct in the given context?
Correct: C
The passage lists three reasons to review the role of the public sector: its comparatively less-than-satisfactory performance, the maturing of the private sector with a larger social base for entrepreneurship, and the growing institutional capabilities to enforce competition policies. It never says the public sector has lost its relevance in industrialization - it credits it with playing an important role - so statement 1 is wrong.
Q21·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
Many nations now place their faith in capitalism and governments choose it as the strategy to create wealth for their people. The spectacular economic growth seen in Brazil, China and India after the liberalisation of their economies is proof of its enormous potential and success. However, the global banking crisis and left the economic recession have many bewildered. The debates tend to focus on free market operations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction. Issues of rarely justice, integrity and honesty are elaborated to highlight the failure of the global banking system. The apologists of the system continue to justify the success of capitalism and argue that the recent crisis was a blip. Their arguments betray an ideological bias with the assumptions that an unregulated market is fair and competent, and that the exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest. Few recognize the bidirectional relationship each between capitalism and greed; that reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest conceptualisation of the conflicts of interest among the rich and powerful players who have benefited from the system, their biases and ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth gross creation should also highlight the resultant inequity. Question: "The exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest" from the passage 1. refers to the false ideology of capitalism. 2. underlies the righteous claims of the free market. 3. shows the benevolent face of capitalism. 4. ignores resultant gross inequity. passage 1. refers to the false ideology of capitalism. 2. underlies the righteous claims of the free market. 3. shows the benevolent face of capitalism. 4. ignores resultant gross inequity.
Correct: C
The author calls this belief one of the ideological assumptions of the apologists of capitalism: it is part of the false ideology that treats an unregulated market as fair and competent, and it conveniently ignores the resultant gross inequity that the author says the focus on wealth creation should highlight. It is not a righteous claim of the free market nor a benevolent face of capitalism.
Q22·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
Many nations now place their faith in capitalism and governments choose it as the strategy to create wealth for their people. The spectacular economic growth seen in Brazil, China and India after the liberalisation of their economies is proof of its enormous potential and success. However, the global banking crisis and left the economic recession have many bewildered. The debates tend to focus on free market operations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction. Issues of rarely justice, integrity and honesty are elaborated to highlight the failure of the global banking system. The apologists of the system continue to justify the success of capitalism and argue that the recent crisis was a blip. Their arguments betray an ideological bias with the assumptions that an unregulated market is fair and competent, and that the exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest. Few recognize the bidirectional relationship each between capitalism and greed; that reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest conceptualisation of the conflicts of interest among the rich and powerful players who have benefited from the system, their biases and ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth gross creation should also highlight the resultant inequity. Question: With reference to "ideological bias", the passage implies that
Correct: C
The ideological bias lies in the apologists' twin assumptions - that an unregulated market is fair and competent and that private greed serves the public interest. The question asks what this bias implies, i.e., what the biased apologists assume: that the free market is both fair and competent.
Q23·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
Many nations now place their faith in capitalism and governments choose it as the strategy to create wealth for their people. The spectacular economic growth seen in Brazil, China and India after the liberalisation of their economies is proof of its enormous potential and success. However, the global banking crisis and left the economic recession have many bewildered. The debates tend to focus on free market operations and forces, their efficiency and their ability for self correction. Issues of rarely justice, integrity and honesty are elaborated to highlight the failure of the global banking system. The apologists of the system continue to justify the success of capitalism and argue that the recent crisis was a blip. Their arguments betray an ideological bias with the assumptions that an unregulated market is fair and competent, and that the exercise of private greed will be in the larger public interest. Few recognize the bidirectional relationship each between capitalism and greed; that reinforces the other. Surely, a more honest conceptualisation of the conflicts of interest among the rich and powerful players who have benefited from the system, their biases and ideology is needed; the focus on the wealth gross creation should also highlight the resultant inequity. Question: The apologists of the "Free Market System", according to the passage, believe in
Correct: C
The passage says the debates surrounding free markets focus on their efficiency and, explicitly, their ability for self correction. That self-correcting power of the market is precisely what the apologists of the free market system believe in.
Q24·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
"Liberty, therefore, is never real unless the Government can be called to account when it invades rights." Which one of the following is the best justification of the above statement?
Correct: D
In the understanding that liberty and restraints are complementary. The quote says liberty is real only when government power can be restrained and held accountable. That means liberty is not absence of all restraint; it requires constitutional limits on power. Option D best captures this relation between liberty and restraint.
Q25·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
A worker reaches his factory 3 minutes late if his speed from his house to the factory is 5 km/hr. If he walks at a speed of 6 km/hr, then he reaches the factory 7 minutes early. The distance of the factory from his house is:
Correct: C
5 km. Let the distance be d km and the correct travel time be T hours. At 5 km/h he takes d/5 hours and is 3 minutes late; at 6 km/h he takes d/6 hours and is 7 minutes early. The time difference is 10 minutes = 1/6 hour. So d/5 - d/6 = 1/6, giving d/30 = 1/6 and d = 5 km.
Q26·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
As per agreement with a bank, a businessman had to refund a loan in some equal instalments without interest. After paying 18 instalments he found that 60 percent of his loan was refunded. How many instalments were there in the agreement?
Correct: C
30. If 18 equal instalments repay 60% of the loan, then 1 instalment repays 60/18 = 10/3 percent of the loan. Number of instalments needed for 100% repayment = 100 ÷ (10/3) = 30. So the agreement had 30 instalments.
Q27·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A and B decide to travel from place X to place Y by bus. A has Rs. 10 with him and he finds that it is 80% of the bus fare for two persons. B finds that he has Rs. 3 with him and hands it over to A. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct: C
After buying the two tickets A will be left with 50 paise. A has Rs. 10, which is 80% of the fare for two persons. So total fare for two tickets = 10 / 0.80 = Rs. 12.50. B gives Rs. 3, so A now has Rs. 13. After buying tickets, balance = 13 - 12.50 = Rs. 0.50. Hence option C is correct.
Q28·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
"Price is not the same thing as value. Suppose that on a day the price of everything viz., coal, bread, postage stamps, a day's labour, the rent of houses, etc. were to double. Prices then would certainly rise, but values of all things except one would not." The writer wants to say that if prices of all things were doubled
Correct: D
If the price of every good and service doubles, the same goods now cost twice as many rupees — the purchasing power of each rupee falls by half. The values of the goods relative to one another stay the same; it is only the value of money that is halved.
Q29·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
A bell rings every 18 minutes. A second bell rings every 24 minutes. A third bell rings every 32 minutes. If all the three bells ring at the same time at 8 o'clock in the morning, at what other time will they all ring together?
Correct: B
12 : 48 hrs. The bells will ring together after the LCM of 18, 24 and 32 minutes. Factorising: 18 = 2 x 3^2, 24 = 2^3 x 3, and 32 = 2^5. LCM = 2^5 x 3^2 = 288 minutes = 4 hours 48 minutes. From 8:00 a.m., the next common ringing time is 12:48 p.m.
Q30·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Consider four bead figures in sequence. Each figure is a square frame with four corner beads, each bead half black and half white. Across the sequence, the black-white halves change positions around the four corners in a regular order. Which figure should appear as the fifth figure?
Correct: B
In each successive figure, the black half of every corner bead rotates 90° clockwise around its corner. Carrying the rotation one step further from the fourth figure gives the fifth figure: top-left bead black on its right half, top-right bead black on its top half, bottom-left bead black on its right half, and bottom-right bead black on its bottom half — option B.
Q31·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
Route figure context: S, U, V and T lie on a horizontal line from left to right. There are three adjacent diamond-shaped route loops: the first has S at its left vertex and U at its right vertex; the second has U at its left vertex and V at its right vertex; the third has V at its left vertex and T at its right vertex. Each diamond has an upper and lower path between its left and right vertices, and the horizontal line runs through S-U-V-T. With reference to this figure, the number of different routes from S to T without retracing from U and/or V is:
Correct: D
Count the choices at each stage. From S to U there are 2 routes (upper or lower arc of the first diamond). From U to V there are 3 onward routes — the upper arc, the lower arc, or the straight horizontal segment. From V to T there are likewise 3 routes. Total distinct routes = 2 × 3 × 3 = 18.
Q32·CSAT·2014·Logical Reasoning
Consider a 3 x 3 matrix with one empty block in the lower-right corner. Each block contains some circles along the top and triangles along the bottom. Row 1: cell 1 has 3 circles and 2 triangles; cell 2 has 3 circles and 3 triangles; cell 3 has 2 circles and 4 triangles with one triangle on the right side. Row 2: cell 1 has 3 circles and 1 triangle; cell 2 has 2 circles and 2 triangles; cell 3 has 1 circle and 3 triangles. Row 3: cell 1 has 2 circles and no triangle; cell 2 has 1 circle and 1 triangle; cell 3 is blank. Which figure could fit in the empty block and thus complete the matrix?
Correct: A
In each row, the circles decrease by one from left to right while the triangles increase by one: row 3 runs 2 circles/0 triangles, 1 circle/1 triangle, so the last cell must be 0 circles and 2 triangles.
Q33·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
The following table gives population and total income of a city for four years: Year 1992 1993 1994 1995; Population in lakhs 20 21 22 23; Income in crores (Rs.) 1010 1111 1225 1345. Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of the above data?
Correct: C
Per capita income was always above Rs. 5,000. Per capita income = total income / population. Since income is in crores and population is in lakhs, each ratio of income/population gives thousands of rupees. 1992: 1010/20 = 50.5 thousand; 1993: 1111/21 is above 52 thousand; 1994: 1225/22 is above 55 thousand; 1995: 1345/23 is above 58 thousand. All are above Rs. 5,000, so option C is correct. Option D is wrong because the highest value is not in 1994.
Q34·CSAT·2014·Logical Reasoning
Consider a 3 x 3 arrow matrix with the centre-bottom cell blank. Row 1 cells: [up, up], [up, down], [down, up]. Row 2 cells: [up, right], [up, left], [down, right]. Row 3 cells: [up, down], [blank], [down, down]. Which figure fits into the blank part of the matrix?
Correct: B
Each row pairs the arrow directions in a fixed cycle: the missing bottom-centre cell completes the column pattern with two up arrows, matching the row/column symmetry of the matrix.
Q35·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Examine the target figure: a small angular zig-zag shape like a broken vertical strip, with a short horizontal segment at the top, an inward bend in the middle, and an outward point to the right. Which option has this target figure embedded in it?
Correct: C
Place the target's broken-strip outline (top horizontal segment, inward mid-bend, outward right point) over each option. Only option C, the figure of overlapping triangle and angle lines, contains the target shape with exactly the same angles and proportions; the other options either distort the angles or lack the full strip.
Q36·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
The following table shows the marks obtained by two students in different subjects: English: Student A 60, Maximum Marks 100, Student B 80, Maximum Marks 150. Psychology: Student A 70, Maximum Marks 100, Student B 70, Maximum Marks 100. History: Student A 50, Maximum Marks 100, Student B 60, Maximum Marks 100. Sanskrit: Student A 30, Maximum Marks 50, Student B 15, Maximum Marks 25. The difference in the mean aggregate percentage marks of the students is:
Correct: D
Zero. Convert each student's marks subject-wise as percentages of maximum marks, because the maximum differs in English. Student A scores 60/100, 70/100, 50/100 and the remaining subject percentages as given in the table; Student B scores 80/150, 70/100, and the remaining subject percentages as given. After normalising by maximum marks and averaging the subject percentages, the two averages are equal. Hence the difference is zero.
Q37·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
It is often forgotten that globalization is not only about policies on international economic relationships and transactions, but has equally to do with domestic policies of a nation. Policy changes necessitated by meeting the internationally set conditions, such as those of free trade and investment flows, obviously affect domestic producers and investors. The basic philosophy gives absolute freedom to markets to determine prices, production and distribution patterns, and views government interventions as processes that create distortions and inefficiency. Thus, public enterprises have to be privatized through disinvestment and sales; sectors and activities hitherto reserved for the public sector have to be opened to the private sector. This logic also extends to the workforce: restrictions on retrenchment, exit and closures are to be removed. Measures regulating employment and wages are seen as discouraging production and creating inefficiency. In line with the reduction in the role of the State, fiscal reforms also call for generally low taxation and minimum government expenditure under fiscal prudence. These are domestic policy actions and are not directly related to the core globalization agenda of free international flow of goods and finance. Question: According to the passage, in the process of globalization the State should have
Correct: B
The passage repeatedly emphasizes reduction in the role of the State, privatization and minimum government expenditure. Therefore the State should have a reducing role.
Q38·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
It is often forgotten that globalization is not only about policies on international economic relationships and transactions, but has equally to do with domestic policies of a nation. Policy changes necessitated by meeting the internationally set conditions, such as those of free trade and investment flows, obviously affect domestic producers and investors. The basic philosophy gives absolute freedom to markets to determine prices, production and distribution patterns, and views government interventions as processes that create distortions and inefficiency. Thus, public enterprises have to be privatized through disinvestment and sales; sectors and activities hitherto reserved for the public sector have to be opened to the private sector. This logic also extends to the workforce: restrictions on retrenchment, exit and closures are to be removed. Measures regulating employment and wages are seen as discouraging production and creating inefficiency. In line with the reduction in the role of the State, fiscal reforms also call for generally low taxation and minimum government expenditure under fiscal prudence. These are domestic policy actions and are not directly related to the core globalization agenda of free international flow of goods and finance. Question: According to the passage, which of the following is/are necessary for ensuring globalization? 1. Privatization of public enterprises. 2. Expansionary policy of public expenditure. 3. Free play of market forces to determine wages and employment. 4. Privatization of social services like education and health. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: C
The passage says globalization requires privatization, freer market determination of employment and wages, reduced State role, and opening sectors to private participation. Expansionary public expenditure goes against the passage, so option C is supported.
Q39·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
It is often forgotten that globalization is not only about policies on international economic relationships and transactions, but has equally to do with domestic policies of a nation. Policy changes necessitated by meeting the internationally set conditions (by WTO etc.) of free trade and investment flows obviously affect domestic producers and investors. But the basic philosophy underlying globalization emphasizes absolute freedom to markets to determine prices and production and distribution patterns, and view government interventions as processes that create distortions and bring in inefficiency. Thus, public enterprises have to be privatized through disinvestments and sales; sectors and activities hitherto reserved for the public sector have to be opened to the private sector. This logic extends to the social services like education and health. Any restrictions on the adjustments in workforce by way of retrenchment of workers should also be removed and exit should be made easier by removing any restrictions on closures. Employment and wages should be governed by free play of market forces, as any measure to regulate them can discourage investment and also create inefficiency in production. Above all, in line with the overall philosophy of reduction in the role of the State, fiscal reforms should be undertaken to have generally low levels of taxation and government expenditure should be kept to the minimum to abide by the principle of fiscal prudence. All these are policy actions on the domestic front and are not directly related to the core items of the globalization agenda, namely free international flow of goods and finance. Question: According to the passage, the basic philosophy of globalization is to
Correct: C
The passage states that the basic philosophy of globalization emphasizes absolute freedom to markets to determine prices and production and distribution patterns, and adds that employment and wages should also be governed by free play of market forces. Option C combines exactly these elements: prices, production and employment.
Q40·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
It is often forgotten that globalization is not only about policies on international economic relationships and transactions, but has equally to do with domestic policies of a nation. Policy changes necessitated by meeting the internationally set conditions (by WTO etc.) of free trade and investment flows obviously affect domestic producers and investors. But the basic philosophy underlying globalization emphasizes absolute freedom to markets to determine prices and production and distribution patterns, and view government interventions as processes that create distortions and bring in inefficiency. Thus, public enterprises have to be privatized through disinvestments and sales; sectors and activities hitherto reserved for the public sector have to be opened to the private sector. This logic extends to the social services like education and health. Any restrictions on the adjustments in workforce by way of retrenchment of workers should also be removed and exit should be made easier by removing any restrictions on closures. Employment and wages should be governed by free play of market forces, as any measure to regulate them can discourage investment and also create inefficiency in production. Above all, in line with the overall philosophy of reduction in the role of the State, fiscal reforms should be undertaken to have generally low levels of taxation and government expenditure should be kept to the minimum to abide by the principle of fiscal prudence. All these are policy actions on the domestic front and are not directly related to the core items of the globalization agenda, namely free international flow of goods and finance. Question: According to the passage, under the globalization, government interventions are viewed as processes leading to
Correct: A
The passage says the philosophy of globalization views government interventions as processes that create distortions and bring in inefficiency. This is stated almost verbatim, making distortions and inefficiency in the economy the direct answer.
Q41·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
The Himalayan ecosystem is highly vulnerable to damage, both due to geological reasons and on account of the stress caused by increased pressure of population, exploitation of natural resources and other related challenges. These aspects may be exacerbated due to the impact of climate change. It is possible that climate change may adversely impact the Himalayan ecosystem through increased temperature, altered precipitation patterns, episodes of drought and biotic influences. This would not only impact the very sustenance of the indigenous communities in uplands but also the life of downstream dwellers across the country and beyond. Therefore, there is an urgent need for giving special attention to sustain the Himalayan ecosystem. This would require conscious efforts for conserving all the representative systems. Further, it needs to be emphasized that the endemics with restricted distribution, and most often with specialized habitat requirements, are among the most vulnerable elements. In this respect the Himalayan biodiversity hotspot, with rich endemic diversity, is vulnerable to climate change. The threats include possible loss of genetic resources and species, habitats and concomitantly a decrease in ecosystem services. Therefore, conservation of endemic elements in representative ecosystems/habitats assumes a great significance while drawing conservation plans for the region. Towards achieving the above, we will have to shift toward contemporary conservation approaches, which include a paradigm of landscape level interconnectivity between protected area systems. The concept advocates a shift from the species-habitat focus to an inclusive focus on expanding the biogeographic range so that natural adjustments to climate change can proceed without being restrictive. Question: With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. To maintain natural ecosystems, exploitation of natural resources should be completely avoided. 2. Not only anthropogenic but also natural reasons can adversely affect ecosystems. 3. Loss of endemic diversity leads to the extinction of ecosystems. Which of the above assumptions is/are correct?
Correct: B
Assumption 2 is valid: the passage says the ecosystem is vulnerable both due to geological reasons and on account of population pressure and resource exploitation, i.e., natural as well as anthropogenic causes. Assumption 1 goes too far - the passage urges conservation, not the complete avoidance of resource use. Assumption 3 is not supported: loss of endemic diversity threatens genetic resources and ecosystem services, not the extinction of the ecosystem itself.
Q42·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
The Himalayan ecosystem is highly vulnerable to damage, both due to geological reasons and on account of the stress caused by increased pressure of population, exploitation of natural resources and other related challenges. These aspects may be exacerbated due to the impact of climate change. It is possible that climate change may adversely impact the Himalayan ecosystem through increased temperature, altered precipitation patterns, episodes of drought and biotic influences. This would not only impact the very sustenance of the indigenous communities in uplands but also the life of downstream dwellers across the country and beyond. Therefore, there is an urgent need for giving special attention to sustain the Himalayan ecosystem. This would require conscious efforts for conserving all the representative systems. Further, it needs to be emphasized that the endemics with restricted distribution, and most often with specialized habitat requirements, are among the most vulnerable elements. In this respect the Himalayan biodiversity hotspot, with rich endemic diversity, is vulnerable to climate change. The threats include possible loss of genetic resources and species, habitats and concomitantly a decrease in ecosystem services. Therefore, conservation of endemic elements in representative ecosystems/habitats assumes a great significance while drawing conservation plans for the region. Towards achieving the above, we will have to shift toward contemporary conservation approaches, which include a paradigm of landscape level interconnectivity between protected area systems. The concept advocates a shift from the species-habitat focus to an inclusive focus on expanding the biogeographic range so that natural adjustments to climate change can proceed without being restrictive. Question: What is the most important message conveyed by the passage?
Correct: B
The passage culminates in a call to shift from the species-habitat focus to expanding the biogeographic range, so that natural adjustments to climate change can proceed. This shift is its most important message: conservation should emphasize biogeographic ranges rather than individual species or habitats.
Q43·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
The Himalayan ecosystem is highly vulnerable to damage, both due to geological reasons and on account of the stress caused by increased pressure of population, exploitation of natural resources and other related challenges. These aspects may be exacerbated due to the impact of climate change. It is possible that climate change may adversely impact the Himalayan ecosystem through increased temperature, altered precipitation patterns, episodes of drought and biotic influences. This would not only impact the very sustenance of the indigenous communities in uplands but also the life of downstream dwellers across the country and beyond. Therefore, there is an urgent need for giving special attention to sustain the Himalayan ecosystem. This would require conscious efforts for conserving all the representative systems. Further, it needs to be emphasized that the endemics with restricted distribution, and most often with specialized habitat requirements, are among the most vulnerable elements. In this respect the Himalayan biodiversity hotspot, with rich endemic diversity, is vulnerable to climate change. The threats include possible loss of genetic resources and species, habitats and concomitantly a decrease in ecosystem services. Therefore, conservation of endemic elements in representative ecosystems/habitats assumes a great significance while drawing conservation plans for the region. Towards achieving the above, we will have to shift toward contemporary conservation approaches, which include a paradigm of landscape level interconnectivity between protected area systems. The concept advocates a shift from the species-habitat focus to an inclusive focus on expanding the biogeographic range so that natural adjustments to climate change can proceed without being restrictive. Question: Which one of the following statements best implies the need to shift toward contemporary conservation approach?
Correct: D
The shift to contemporary conservation is driven by the need to let natural adjustments to climate change proceed without being restrictive - the Himalayan biogeographic region should be enabled to adapt to climate change smoothly. The other options restate facts or problems from the passage, not the reason for the shift.
Q44·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
The Himalayan ecosystem is highly vulnerable to damage, both due to geological reasons and on account of the stress caused by increased pressure of population, exploitation of natural resources and other related challenges. These aspects may be exacerbated due to the impact of climate change. It is possible that climate change may adversely impact the Himalayan ecosystem through increased temperature, altered precipitation patterns, episodes of drought and biotic influences. This would not only impact the very sustenance of the indigenous communities in uplands but also the life of downstream dwellers across the country and beyond. Therefore, there is an urgent need for giving special attention to sustain the Himalayan ecosystem. This would require conscious efforts for conserving all the representative systems. Further, it needs to be emphasized that the endemics with restricted distribution, and most often with specialized habitat requirements, are among the most vulnerable elements. In this respect the Himalayan biodiversity hotspot, with rich endemic diversity, is vulnerable to climate change. The threats include possible loss of genetic resources and species, habitats and concomitantly a decrease in ecosystem services. Therefore, conservation of endemic elements in representative ecosystems/habitats assumes a great significance while drawing conservation plans for the region. Towards achieving the above, we will have to shift toward contemporary conservation approaches, which include a paradigm of landscape level interconnectivity between protected area systems. The concept advocates a shift from the species-habitat focus to an inclusive focus on expanding the biogeographic range so that natural adjustments to climate change can proceed without being restrictive. Question: Consider the following statements: According to the passage, the adverse impact of climate change on an ecosystem can be a 1. permanent disappearance of some of its flora and fauna. 2. permanent disappearance of ecosystem itself. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct: A
The passage says climate change threatens the possible loss of genetic resources and species - so the permanent disappearance of some flora and fauna is supported. It does not say the ecosystem itself would permanently disappear; the damage is to species, habitats and ecosystem services, so statement 2 is not supported.
Q45·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
Six identical cards are placed on a table. Each card has number '1' marked on one side and number '2' marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed in such a manner that the number '1' is on the upper side. In one try, exactly four (neither more nor less) cards are turned upside down. In how many least number of tries can the cards be turned upside down such that all the six cards show number '2' on the upper side?
Correct: A
3. Initially all six cards show 1. One try turns exactly four cards. Two tries cannot make all six cards show 2, because at most eight flips are made and any card flipped twice returns to 1. Three tries work: turn cards 1,2,3,4 in the first try; cards 1,2,3,5 in the second; and cards 1,2,3,6 in the third. Cards 1,2,3 are flipped three times each and cards 4,5,6 once each, so all six finally show 2.
Q46·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
Out of a total of 120 musicians in a club, 5% can play all the three instruments, guitar, violin and flute. It so happens that the number of musicians who can play any two and only two of the above instruments is 30. The number of musicians who can play the guitar alone is 40. What is the total number of those who can play violin alone or flute alone?
Correct: B
Total musicians = 120. Musicians who play all three instruments = 5% of 120 = 6. Musicians who play exactly two instruments = 30. Musicians who play guitar alone = 40. Subtracting these from the total, violin alone plus flute alone = 120 - 6 - 30 - 40 = 44.
Q47·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If Sohan, while selling two goats at the same price, makes a profit of 10% on one goat and suffers a loss of 10% on the other
Correct: C
When two articles are sold at the same price, one at a profit of 10% and the other at a loss of 10%, there is always a net loss. If the common selling price is S, total cost price = S/1.1 + S/0.9 = 2.0202S while total selling price = 2S, so the loss = (2.0202S − 2S) ÷ 2.0202S ≈ 1%.
Q48·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
A straight line segment is 36 cm long. Points are to be marked on the line from both the end points. From each end, the first point is at a distance of 1 cm from the end, the second point is at a distance of 2 cm from the first point and the third point is at a distance of 3 cm from the second point and so on. If the points on the ends are not counted and the common points are counted as one, what is the number of points?
Correct: B
12. From one end, marked positions are at cumulative distances 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, 28 and 36 cm. From the other end, the corresponding positions are 35, 33, 30, 26, 21, 15, 8 and 0 cm. Counting distinct marked points on the 36 cm line gives 12. The overlap at 15 cm and 21 cm must be counted only once.
Q49·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Six books are labelled A, B, C, D, E and F and are placed side by side. Books B, C, E and F have green covers while others have yellow covers. Books A, B and D are new while the rest are old volumes. Books A, B and C are law reports while the rest are medical extracts. Which two books are old medical extracts and have green covers?
Correct: B
Green covers: B, C, E, F. Old volumes: C, E, F. Medical extracts: D, E, F. The books satisfying all three (green + old + medical) are E and F.
Q50·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
A gardener increased the area of his rectangular garden by increasing its length by 40% and decreasing its width by 20%. The area of the new garden
Correct: B
The area has increased by 12%. Let the original length be L and width be W, so original area = LW. New length = 1.4L and new width = 0.8W. New area = 1.4 x 0.8 x LW = 1.12LW. Therefore the area becomes 112% of the original, i.e. it increases by 12%.
Q51·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and some can speak only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?
Correct: D
39, 29 and 11 respectively. Total students = 50. English speakers = 21, including 10 who speak both languages, so only-English = 21 - 10 = 11. Using total = only-English + only-Hindi + both, 50 = 11 + only-Hindi + 10, giving only-Hindi = 29. Total Hindi speakers = only-Hindi + both = 29 + 10 = 39. Therefore the required values are 39, 29 and 11.
Q52·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
It is essential that we mitigate the emissions of greenhouse gases and thus avoid some of the worst impacts of climate change that would take place in coming years and decades. Mitigation would require a major shift in the way we produce and consume energy. A shift away from overwhelming dependence on fossil fuels is now long overdue, but unfortunately, technological development has been slow and inadequate largely because government policies have not promoted investments in research and development, myopically, as a result of relatively low prices of oil. It is therefore imperative for a country like India to treat the opportunity of harnessing renewable energy on a large scale as a national imperative. This country is extremely well endowed with solar, wind and biomass sources of energy. Where we have lagged, unfortunately, is in our ability to develop and to create technological solutions for harnessing these resources. One particular trajectory for carrying out stringent mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions assessed by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) clearly shows the need for ensuring that global emissions of greenhouse gases peak no later than 2015 and reduce rapidly thereafter. The cost associated with such a trajectory is truly modest and would amount, in the estimation of IPCC, to not more than 3 percent of the global GDP in 2030. In other words, the level of prosperity that the world would have reached without mitigation would at worst be postponed by a few months or a year at the most. This is clearly not a very high price to pay for protecting hundreds of millions of people from the worst risks associated with climate change. Any such effort, however, would also require changes in lifestyles appropriately. Mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions is not a mere technological fix, and clearly requires changes in lifestyles and transformation of a country's economic structure, whereby effective reduction in emissions is brought about, such as through the consumption of much lower quantities of animal protein. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) has determined that the emissions from the livestock sector amount to 18 percent of the total. The reduction of emissions from this source is entirely in the hands of human beings, who have never questioned the impacts that their dietary habits of consuming more and more animal protein are bringing about. Mitigation overall has huge co-benefits, such as lower air pollution and health benefits, higher energy security and greater employment. Question: What is the essential message of the passage?
Correct: B
The passage opens with the assertion that it is essential to mitigate greenhouse gas emissions to avoid the worst impacts of climate change, and reinforces this with the IPCC trajectory and its modest cost. The essential message is that mitigation of greenhouse gases is imperative.
Q53·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
It is essential that we mitigate the emissions of greenhouse gases and thus avoid some of the worst impacts of climate change that would take place in coming years and decades. Mitigation would require a major shift in the way we produce and consume energy. A shift away from overwhelming dependence on fossil fuels is now long overdue, but unfortunately, technological development has been slow and inadequate largely because government policies have not promoted investments in research and development, myopically, as a result of relatively low prices of oil. It is therefore imperative for a country like India to treat the opportunity of harnessing renewable energy on a large scale as a national imperative. This country is extremely well endowed with solar, wind and biomass sources of energy. Where we have lagged, unfortunately, is in our ability to develop and to create technological solutions for harnessing these resources. One particular trajectory for carrying out stringent mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions assessed by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) clearly shows the need for ensuring that global emissions of greenhouse gases peak no later than 2015 and reduce rapidly thereafter. The cost associated with such a trajectory is truly modest and would amount, in the estimation of IPCC, to not more than 3 percent of the global GDP in 2030. In other words, the level of prosperity that the world would have reached without mitigation would at worst be postponed by a few months or a year at the most. This is clearly not a very high price to pay for protecting hundreds of millions of people from the worst risks associated with climate change. Any such effort, however, would also require changes in lifestyles appropriately. Mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions is not a mere technological fix, and clearly requires changes in lifestyles and transformation of a country's economic structure, whereby effective reduction in emissions is brought about, such as through the consumption of much lower quantities of animal protein. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) has determined that the emissions from the livestock sector amount to 18 percent of the total. The reduction of emissions from this source is entirely in the hands of human beings, who have never questioned the impacts that their dietary habits of consuming more and more animal protein are bringing about. Mitigation overall has huge co-benefits, such as lower air pollution and health benefits, higher energy security and greater employment. Question: According to the passage, how does the mitigation of greenhouse gases help us? 1. Reduces expenditure on public health 2. Reduces dependence on livestock 3. Reduces energy requirements 4. Reduces rate of global climate change Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: B
Mitigation helps by avoiding the worst climate impacts - reducing the rate of global climate change - and the passage adds huge co-benefits such as health benefits and higher energy security, supporting statements 1, 3 and 4. Statement 2 is not mentioned: the passage speaks of consuming less animal protein, not of reducing dependence on livestock.
Q54·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
It is essential that we mitigate the emissions of greenhouse gases and thus avoid some of the worst impacts of climate change that would take place in coming years and decades. Mitigation would require a major shift in the way we produce and consume energy. A shift away from overwhelming dependence on fossil fuels is now long overdue, but unfortunately, technological development has been slow and inadequate largely because government policies have not promoted investments in research and development, myopically, as a result of relatively low prices of oil. It is therefore imperative for a country like India to treat the opportunity of harnessing renewable energy on a large scale as a national imperative. This country is extremely well endowed with solar, wind and biomass sources of energy. Where we have lagged, unfortunately, is in our ability to develop and to create technological solutions for harnessing these resources. One particular trajectory for carrying out stringent mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions assessed by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) clearly shows the need for ensuring that global emissions of greenhouse gases peak no later than 2015 and reduce rapidly thereafter. The cost associated with such a trajectory is truly modest and would amount, in the estimation of IPCC, to not more than 3 percent of the global GDP in 2030. In other words, the level of prosperity that the world would have reached without mitigation would at worst be postponed by a few months or a year at the most. This is clearly not a very high price to pay for protecting hundreds of millions of people from the worst risks associated with climate change. Any such effort, however, would also require changes in lifestyles appropriately. Mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions is not a mere technological fix, and clearly requires changes in lifestyles and transformation of a country's economic structure, whereby effective reduction in emissions is brought about, such as through the consumption of much lower quantities of animal protein. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) has determined that the emissions from the livestock sector amount to 18 percent of the total. The reduction of emissions from this source is entirely in the hands of human beings, who have never questioned the impacts that their dietary habits of consuming more and more animal protein are bringing about. Mitigation overall has huge co-benefits, such as lower air pollution and health benefits, higher energy security and greater employment. Question: Why do we continue to depend on the fossil fuels heavily? 1. Inadequate technological development 2. Inadequate funds for research and development 3. Inadequate availability of alternative sources of energy Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: D
The passage gives two explicit reasons: technological development has been slow and inadequate, and government policies have not promoted investments in research and development. Although India is endowed with solar, wind and biomass, it has lagged in the technology to harness them, so the availability of usable alternative sources also remains inadequate.
Q55·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
It is essential that we mitigate the emissions of greenhouse gases and thus avoid some of the worst impacts of climate change that would take place in coming years and decades. Mitigation would require a major shift in the way we produce and consume energy. A shift away from overwhelming dependence on fossil fuels is now long overdue, but unfortunately, technological development has been slow and inadequate largely because government policies have not promoted investments in research and development, myopically, as a result of relatively low prices of oil. It is therefore imperative for a country like India to treat the opportunity of harnessing renewable energy on a large scale as a national imperative. This country is extremely well endowed with solar, wind and biomass sources of energy. Where we have lagged, unfortunately, is in our ability to develop and to create technological solutions for harnessing these resources. One particular trajectory for carrying out stringent mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions assessed by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) clearly shows the need for ensuring that global emissions of greenhouse gases peak no later than 2015 and reduce rapidly thereafter. The cost associated with such a trajectory is truly modest and would amount, in the estimation of IPCC, to not more than 3 percent of the global GDP in 2030. In other words, the level of prosperity that the world would have reached without mitigation would at worst be postponed by a few months or a year at the most. This is clearly not a very high price to pay for protecting hundreds of millions of people from the worst risks associated with climate change. Any such effort, however, would also require changes in lifestyles appropriately. Mitigation of greenhouse gas emissions is not a mere technological fix, and clearly requires changes in lifestyles and transformation of a country's economic structure, whereby effective reduction in emissions is brought about, such as through the consumption of much lower quantities of animal protein. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) has determined that the emissions from the livestock sector amount to 18 percent of the total. The reduction of emissions from this source is entirely in the hands of human beings, who have never questioned the impacts that their dietary habits of consuming more and more animal protein are bringing about. Mitigation overall has huge co-benefits, such as lower air pollution and health benefits, higher energy security and greater employment. Question: According to the passage, which of the following would help in the mitigation of greenhouse gases? 1. Reducing the consumption of meat. 2. Rapid economic liberalization. 3. Reducing the consumerism. 4. Modern management practices of livestock. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: C
The passage says mitigation requires changes in lifestyles, such as the consumption of much lower quantities of animal protein, and transformation of the economic structure. Reducing meat consumption (1) and reducing consumerism (3) match these lifestyle changes. Rapid economic liberalization and modern livestock management are not mentioned.
Q56·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
Climate change potentially poses devastating effects on India's agriculture. While the overall parameters of climate change are increasingly accepted: 1°C average temperature increase over the next 30 years, sea level rise of less than 10 cm in the same period, and monsoon variations and corresponding regional droughts - the impacts in India are likely to be quite site and crop specific. Some crops may respond favourably to the changing conditions, others may not. This emphasizes the need to promote agricultural research and create maximum flexibility in the system to permit adaptations. The key ingredient for "drought proofing" is the managed recharge of aquifers. To ensure continued yields of important staple crops (e.g. wheat), it may also be necessary to shift the locations where these crops are grown, in response to temperature changes as well as to water availability. The latter will be a key factor in making long term investment decisions. For example, water runoff from the Himalayas is predicted to increase over the next 30 years as glaciers melt, but then decline substantially thereafter. It will be critical to provide incentives to plan for these large-scale shifts in agro-ecological conditions. India needs to make long term investment in research and development in agriculture. India is likely to experience changed weather patterns in future. Question: According to the passage, why is it important to promote agricultural research in India?
Correct: C
The passage notes that climate impacts are site- and crop-specific, with some crops responding favourably and others not, which emphasizes the need for research and maximum flexibility in the system to permit adaptations. Agricultural research is therefore important to facilitate wider adaptability of crops.
Q57·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
Climate change potentially poses devastating effects on India's agriculture. While the overall parameters of climate change are increasingly accepted: 1°C average temperature increase over the next 30 years, sea level rise of less than 10 cm in the same period, and monsoon variations and corresponding regional droughts - the impacts in India are likely to be quite site and crop specific. Some crops may respond favourably to the changing conditions, others may not. This emphasizes the need to promote agricultural research and create maximum flexibility in the system to permit adaptations. The key ingredient for "drought proofing" is the managed recharge of aquifers. To ensure continued yields of important staple crops (e.g. wheat), it may also be necessary to shift the locations where these crops are grown, in response to temperature changes as well as to water availability. The latter will be a key factor in making long term investment decisions. For example, water runoff from the Himalayas is predicted to increase over the next 30 years as glaciers melt, but then decline substantially thereafter. It will be critical to provide incentives to plan for these large-scale shifts in agro-ecological conditions. India needs to make long term investment in research and development in agriculture. India is likely to experience changed weather patterns in future. Question: Consider the following statements: Climate change may force the shifting of locations of the existing crops due to 1. melting of glaciers. 2. water availability and temperature suitability at other locations. 3. poor productivity of crops. 4. wider adaptability of crop plants. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct: B
The passage says staple crops may have to be shifted to other locations in response to temperature changes and water availability, supporting statement 2; this is done to ensure continued yields, implying poor productivity at the existing locations, supporting statement 3. Melting glaciers affect future water runoff, not the immediate reason for shifting, and wider adaptability is an aim of research, not a cause.
Q58·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
Assume that 1. the hour and minute hands of a clock move without jerking. 2. the clock shows a time between 8 o'clock and 9 o'clock. 3. the two hands of the clock are one above the other. After how many minutes (nearest integer) will the two hands be again lying one above the other?
Correct: C
65. For two clock hands, the minute hand gains on the hour hand at 5.5 degrees per minute. Two successive overlaps are therefore separated by 360/5.5 = 720/11 = 65.45 minutes. Rounded to the nearest integer, this is 65 minutes, so option C is correct.
Q59·CSAT·2014·Logical Reasoning
Four children are sitting in a row. A is occupying the seat next to B but not next to C. If C is not sitting next to D, who is/are occupying seat/seats adjacent to D?
Correct: B
A is next to B but not next to C, and C is not next to D. The only consistent arrangement places A adjacent to D on one side, so A occupies the seat adjacent to D.
Q60·CSAT·2014·Logical Reasoning
Consider the following statements: There are six villages A, B, C, D, E and F. F is 1 km to the west of D. B is 1 km to the east of E. A is 2 km to the north of E. C is 1 km to the east of A. D is 1 km to the south of A. Which three villages are in a line?
Correct: B
Place the villages: E as origin, A is 2 km north of E, D is 1 km south of A (so 1 km north of E). A, D and E therefore lie on the same north-south line. The other trios do not lie on one straight line.
Q61·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Consider that: 1. A is taller than B. 2. C is taller than A. 3. D is taller than C. 4. E is the tallest of all. If they are made to sit in the above order of their height, who will occupy the mid position?
Correct: C
E is the tallest, then in descending order: D, C, A, B (A taller than B, C taller than A, D taller than C, E tallest). Arranged by height from tallest to shortest: E, D, C, A, B. The middle (third) position is occupied by C.
Q62·CSAT·2014·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
There are seven persons up on a ladder, A, B, C, D, E, F and G (not in that order). A is further up than E but is lower than C. B is in the middle. G is between A and B. E is between B and F. If F is between E and D, the person on the bottom step of the ladder will be
Correct: C
B is the middle (fourth) step. G is between A and B and A is below C, so the three above B are, top to bottom, C, A, G. E is between B and F, and F is between E and D, so the three below B are, in order, E, F, D. The bottom step is therefore occupied by D.
Q63·CSAT·2014·Quantitative Aptitude
A group of 630 children is seated in rows for a group photo session. Each row contains three less children than the row in front of it. Which one of the following number of rows is not possible?
Correct: D
6. If there are n rows and the first row has x children, the rows form an arithmetic progression: x, x-3, x-6. for n terms. Total = n/2[2x - 3(n-1)]. Testing n = 6 gives 630 = 3(2x - 15), so 2x - 15 = 210 and x = 112.5, not a whole number of children. Hence 6 rows is not possible.
Q64·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
It is easy for the government to control State-owned companies through nods and winks. So what really needs to be done as a first step is to put petrol pricing on a transparent formula - if the price of crude is x and the exchange rate y, then every month or fortnight, the government announces a maximum price of petrol, which anybody can work out from the x and the y. The rule has to be worked out to make sure that the oil-marketing companies can, in general, cover their costs. This will mean that if one company can innovate and cut costs, it will make greater profits. Hence, firms will be more prone to innovate and be efficient under this system. Once the rule is announced, there should be no interference by the government. If this is done for a while, private companies will re-enter this market. And once a sufficient number of them are in the fray, we can remove the rule-based pricing and leave it truly to the market (subject to, of course, the usual regulations of anti-trust and other competition laws). Question: Consider the following statements: According to the passage, private oil companies re-enter the oil producing market if 1. a transparent rule-based petrol pricing exists. 2. there is no government interference in the oil producing market. 3. subsidies are given by the government. 4. regulations of anti-trust are removed. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct: A
The passage says private companies will re-enter the market once transparent rule-based pricing exists and the government does not interfere. Subsidies are never mentioned, and the passage explicitly retains anti-trust and competition regulations even in the final free-market stage.
Q65·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
It is easy for the government to control State-owned companies through nods and winks. So what really needs to be done as a first step is to put petrol pricing on a transparent formula - if the price of crude is x and the exchange rate y, then every month or fortnight, the government announces a maximum price of petrol, which anybody can work out from the x and the y. The rule has to be worked out to make sure that the oil-marketing companies can, in general, cover their costs. This will mean that if one company can innovate and cut costs, it will make greater profits. Hence, firms will be more prone to innovate and be efficient under this system. Once the rule is announced, there should be no interference by the government. If this is done for a while, private companies will re-enter this market. And once a sufficient number of them are in the fray, we can remove the rule-based pricing and leave it truly to the market (subject to, of course, the usual regulations of anti-trust and other competition laws). Question: Consider the following statements: According to the passage, an oil company can make greater profits, if a transparent formula for petrol pricing is announced every fortnight or month, by 1. promoting its sales. 2. undertaking innovation. 3. cutting costs. 4. selling its equity shares at higher prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct: B
Under the transparent formula, a company that can innovate and cut costs will make greater profits - the passage says this verbatim and adds that firms will be more prone to innovate and be efficient under this system. Promoting sales and selling equity at higher prices are not mentioned.
Q66·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
In recent times, India has grown fast not only compared to its own past but also in comparison with other nations. But there cannot be any room for complacency because it is possible for the Indian economy to develop even faster and also to spread the benefits of this growth more widely than has been done thus far. Before going into details of the kinds of micro-structural changes that we need to conceptualize and then proceed to implement, it is worthwhile elaborating on the idea of inclusive growth that constitutes the defining concept behind this Government's various economic policies and decisions. A nation interested in inclusive growth views the same growth differently depending on whether the gains of the growth are heaped primarily on a small segment of the population or shared widely by the population. The latter is cause for celebration but not the former. In other words, growth must not be treated as an end in itself but as an instrument for spreading prosperity to all. India's own past experience and the experience of other nations suggests that growth is necessary for eradicating poverty but it is not a sufficient condition. In other words, policies for promoting growth need to be complemented with policies to ensure that more and more people join in the growth process and, further, that mechanisms are in place to redistribute some of the gains to those who are unable to partake in the market process and, hence, get left behind. A simple way of giving this idea of inclusive growth a sharper form is to measure a nation's progress in terms of the progress of its poorest segment, for instance the bottom 20 per cent of the population. One could measure the per capita income of the bottom quintile of the population and also calculate the growth rate of income; and evaluate our economic success in terms of these measures that pertain to the poorest segment. This approach is attractive because it does not ignore growth like some of the older heterodox criteria did. It simply looks at the growth of income of the poorest sections of the population. It also ensures that those who are outside of the bottom quintile do not get ignored. If that were done, then those people would in all likelihood drop down into the bottom quintile and so would automatically become a direct target of our policies. Hence the criterion being suggested here is a statistical summing up of the idea of inclusive growth, which, in turn, leads to two corollaries: to wish that India must strive to achieve high growth and that we must work to ensure that the weakest segments benefit from the growth. Question: Consider the following statements: According to the author, India's economy has grown but there is no room for complacency as 1. growth eradicates poverty. 2. growth has resulted in prosperity for all. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct: D
The passage says growth is necessary for eradicating poverty but is not a sufficient condition, so statement 1 is wrong; and it says the benefits of growth have not been spread widely, so statement 2 is also wrong. Hence there is no room for complacency despite growth.
Q67·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
In recent times, India has grown fast not only compared to its own past but also in comparison with other nations. But there cannot be any room for complacency because it is possible for the Indian economy to develop even faster and also to spread the benefits of this growth more widely than has been done thus far. Before going into details of the kinds of micro-structural changes that we need to conceptualize and then proceed to implement, it is worthwhile elaborating on the idea of inclusive growth that constitutes the defining concept behind this Government's various economic policies and decisions. A nation interested in inclusive growth views the same growth differently depending on whether the gains of the growth are heaped primarily on a small segment of the population or shared widely by the population. The latter is cause for celebration but not the former. In other words, growth must not be treated as an end in itself but as an instrument for spreading prosperity to all. India's own past experience and the experience of other nations suggests that growth is necessary for eradicating poverty but it is not a sufficient condition. In other words, policies for promoting growth need to be complemented with policies to ensure that more and more people join in the growth process and, further, that mechanisms are in place to redistribute some of the gains to those who are unable to partake in the market process and, hence, get left behind. A simple way of giving this idea of inclusive growth a sharper form is to measure a nation's progress in terms of the progress of its poorest segment, for instance the bottom 20 per cent of the population. One could measure the per capita income of the bottom quintile of the population and also calculate the growth rate of income; and evaluate our economic success in terms of these measures that pertain to the poorest segment. This approach is attractive because it does not ignore growth like some of the older heterodox criteria did. It simply looks at the growth of income of the poorest sections of the population. It also ensures that those who are outside of the bottom quintile do not get ignored. If that were done, then those people would in all likelihood drop down into the bottom quintile and so would automatically become a direct target of our policies. Hence the criterion being suggested here is a statistical summing up of the idea of inclusive growth, which, in turn, leads to two corollaries: to wish that India must strive to achieve high growth and that we must work to ensure that the weakest segments benefit from the growth. Question: The author supports policies which will help
Correct: C
The author derives two corollaries from inclusive growth: India must strive to achieve high growth and must ensure that the weakest segments benefit from that growth. So he supports policies that develop economic growth and redistribute gains to those getting left behind.
Q68·CSAT·2014·Reading Comprehension
In recent times, India has grown fast not only compared to its own past but also in comparison with other nations. But there cannot be any room for complacency because it is possible for the Indian economy to develop even faster and also to spread the benefits of this growth more widely than has been done thus far. Before going into details of the kinds of micro-structural changes that we need to conceptualize and then proceed to implement, it is worthwhile elaborating on the idea of inclusive growth that constitutes the defining concept behind this Government's various economic policies and decisions. A nation interested in inclusive growth views the same growth differently depending on whether the gains of the growth are heaped primarily on a small segment of the population or shared widely by the population. The latter is cause for celebration but not the former. In other words, growth must not be treated as an end in itself but as an instrument for spreading prosperity to all. India's own past experience and the experience of other nations suggests that growth is necessary for eradicating poverty but it is not a sufficient condition. In other words, policies for promoting growth need to be complemented with policies to ensure that more and more people join in the growth process and, further, that mechanisms are in place to redistribute some of the gains to those who are unable to partake in the market process and, hence, get left behind. A simple way of giving this idea of inclusive growth a sharper form is to measure a nation's progress in terms of the progress of its poorest segment, for instance the bottom 20 per cent of the population. One could measure the per capita income of the bottom quintile of the population and also calculate the growth rate of income; and evaluate our economic success in terms of these measures that pertain to the poorest segment. This approach is attractive because it does not ignore growth like some of the older heterodox criteria did. It simply looks at the growth of income of the poorest sections of the population. It also ensures that those who are outside of the bottom quintile do not get ignored. If that were done, then those people would in all likelihood drop down into the bottom quintile and so would automatically become a direct target of our policies. Hence the criterion being suggested here is a statistical summing up of the idea of inclusive growth, which, in turn, leads to two corollaries: to wish that India must strive to achieve high growth and that we must work to ensure that the weakest segments benefit from the growth. Question: The author's central focus is on
Correct: C
The author explicitly says growth must not be treated as an end in itself but as an instrument for spreading prosperity to all, and that mechanisms should redistribute gains to those left behind. His central focus is inclusive growth where the gains are shared widely by the population.