80 CSAT questions from the official UPSC 2016 Prelims paper, each with the verified answer key and an explanation.
1–80 of 80
Q1·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A person allows a 10% discount for cash payment from the marked price of a toy and still he makes a 10% gain. What is the cost price of the toy which is marked Rs. 770?
Correct: C
Marked price Rs.770 with a 10% cash discount gives a selling price of 770 × 0.9 = Rs.693. This selling price still yields a 10% gain, so cost price = 693 ÷ 1.1 = Rs.630.
Q2·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
A round archery target of diameter 1 m is marked with four scoring regions from the centre outwards as red, blue, yellow and white. The radius of the red band is 0.20 m. The width of all the remaining bands is equal. If archers throw arrows towards the target, what is the probability that the arrows fall in the red region of the archery target?
Correct: C
0.16. The target radius is 0.5 m because diameter is 1 m. The red region radius is 0.20 m. Probability of hitting the red region, assuming uniform landing over the target, is area(red)/area(target) = pi(0.20)^2 / pi(0.50)^2 = 0.04/0.25 = 0.16.
Q3·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
In a race, a competitor has to collect 6 apples which are kept in a straight line on a track and a bucket is placed at the beginning of the track which is a starting point. The condition is that the competitor can pick only one apple at a time, run back with it and drop it in the bucket. If he has to drop all the apples in the bucket, how much total distance he has to run if the bucket is 5 meters from the first apple and all other apples are placed 3 meters apart?
Correct: D
150 m. The apples are placed in a straight line at equal intervals from the bucket. The runner must return to the bucket after each apple, so the total distance is twice the sum of the six apple distances. With distances 5, 8, 11, 14, 17 and 20 m, total = 2 x (5+10+15+20+25+30) = 2 x 75 = 150 m.
Q4·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 is Rs. 10,000. What will be the average monthly income of a person in the same family if the income of one person increased by Rs. 1,20,000 per year?
Correct: A
Rs. 12,000. Current total monthly income of 5 persons = 5 x 10,000 = Rs. 50,000. One person's annual income increases by Rs. 1,20,000, i.e. monthly increase = Rs. 10,000. New monthly family income = Rs. 60,000. New average = 60,000/5 = Rs. 12,000.
Q5·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
W can do 25% of a work in 30 days, X can do 1/4 of the work in 10 days, Y can do 40% of the work in 40 days and Z can do 1/3 of the work in 13 days. Who will complete the work first?
Correct: D
Z. Convert each statement to a full-work time. W does 25% in 30 days, so full work takes 120 days. X does 1/4 in 10 days, so full work takes 40 days. Y does 40% in 40 days, so full work takes 100 days. Z does 1/3 in 13 days, so full work takes 39 days. Z finishes first.
Q6·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
A and B walk around a circular park. They start at 8 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall they cross each other after 8.00 a.m. and before 9.30 a.m.?
Correct: A
7. A and B walk in opposite directions at 2 and 3 rounds per hour, so their relative speed is 5 rounds per hour. They meet every 1/5 hour = 12 minutes. After 8:00 a.m. and before 9:30 a.m., the meetings occur at 8:12, 8:24, 8:36, 8:48, 9:00, 9:12 and 9:24. That is 7 times.
Q7·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
In a class of 60 students, where the number of girls is twice that of boys, Kamal, a boy, ranked seventeenth from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, the number of boys in rank after him is:
Correct: B
12. Total students = 60. Girls are twice boys, so boys = 20 and girls = 40. Kamal is 17th from the top, so 16 students are ahead of him. Of these, 9 are girls; hence 7 are boys. Including Kamal, boys up to his rank = 8. Boys after him = 20 - 8 = 12.
Q8·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A cylindrical overhead tank of radius 2 m and height 7 m is to be filled from an underground tank of size 5.5 m x 4 m x 6 m. How much portion of the underground tank is still filled with water after filling the overhead tank completely?
Correct: A
Overhead tank volume = π × 2² × 7 = 28π ≈ 88 m³. Underground tank volume = 5.5 × 4 × 6 = 132 m³. After filling the overhead tank, the underground tank still holds 132 − 88 = 44 m³, i.e. 44/132 = 1/3 of its capacity.
Q9·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
Four-digit numbers are to be formed using the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4; and none of these four digits are repeated in any manner. Further, 1. 2 and 3 are not to immediately follow each other 2. 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3 3. 4 is not to appear at the last place 4. 1 is not to appear at the first place How many different numbers can be formed?
Correct: A
6. Form 4-digit numbers using 1,2,3,4 once each. Apply the restrictions: 2 and 3 must not be adjacent; 1 must not be immediately followed by 3; 4 must not be last; and 1 must not be first. Checking the 24 possible permutations after these filters leaves 6 valid numbers. Hence 6 numbers can be formed.
Q10·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
The issue of worldwide supply of food has gained importance mainly because of: 1. overgrowth of the population worldwide 2. sharp decline in the area of food production 3. limitation in the capabilities for sustained supply of food Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: B
3 only. The passage stresses that the world food-supply issue is linked to the capability to maintain a sustained supply of food amid changing demand and weak supply arrangements. It does not make a sharp decline in area under food production the central reason. Population pressure is part of the larger background, but the question asks what mainly gives worldwide supply its importance; the passage's direct emphasis is on limitations in sustained supply. Hence only statement 3 is the best answer.
Q11·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
Historically, the biggest challenge to world agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food. At the level of individual countries, the demand-supply balance can be a critical policy issue for a closed economy, especially if it is a populous economy and its domestic agriculture is not growing sufficiently enough to ensure food supplies, on an enduring basis; it is not so much and not always, of a constraint for an open, and growing economy, which has adequate exchange surpluses to buy food abroad. For the world as a whole, supply-demand balance is always an inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger and starvation. However, global availability of adequate supply does not necessarily mean that food would automatically move from countries of surplus to countries of deficit if the latter lack in purchasing power. The uneven distribution of hunger, starvation, under- or malnourishment, etc., at the world-level, thus owes itself to the presence of empty-pocket hungry mouths, overwhelmingly confined to the underdeveloped economies. Inasmuch as *a two-square meal' is of elemental significance to basic human existence, the issue of worldwide supply of food has been gaining significance, in recent times, both because the quantum and the composition of demand has been undergoing big changes, and because, in recent years, the capabilities of individual countries to generate uninterrupted chain of food supplies have come under strain. Food production, marketing and prices, especially price-affordability by the poor in the developing world, have become global issues that need global thinking and global solutions. Question: According to the above passage, which of the following helps/help in reducing hunger and starvation in the developing economies? 1. Balancing demand and supply of food 2. Increasing imports of food 3. Increasing purchasing power of the poor 4. Changing the food consumption patterns and practices Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
The passage identifies the demand-supply balance as the core of world agriculture and stresses price-affordability by the poor in the developing world as central to food security. Hence balancing demand and supply of food (1) and increasing the purchasing power of the poor (3) help reduce hunger and starvation; imports and changing consumption patterns are not cited as solutions.
Q12·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
Historically, the biggest challenge to world agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food. At the level of individual countries, the demand-supply balance can be a critical policy issue for a closed economy, especially if it is a populous economy and its domestic agriculture is not growing sufficiently enough to ensure food supplies, on an enduring basis; it is not so much and not always, of a constraint for an open, and growing economy, which has adequate exchange surpluses to buy food abroad. For the world as a whole, supply-demand balance is always an inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger and starvation. However, global availability of adequate supply does not necessarily mean that food would automatically move from countries of surplus to countries of deficit if the latter lack in purchasing power. The uneven distribution of hunger, starvation, under- or malnourishment, etc., at the world-level, thus owes itself to the presence of empty-pocket hungry mouths, overwhelmingly confined to the underdeveloped economies. Inasmuch as *a two-square meal' is of elemental significance to basic human existence, the issue of worldwide supply of food has been gaining significance, in recent times, both because the quantum and the composition of demand has been undergoing big changes, and because, in recent years, the capabilities of individual countries to generate uninterrupted chain of food supplies have come under strain. Food production, marketing and prices, especially price-affordability by the poor in the developing world, have become global issues that need global thinking and global solutions. Question: According to the above passage, the biggest challenge to world agriculture is:
Correct: D
The passage states it in its opening line: historically, the biggest challenge to world agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food. The other options are not stated.
Q13·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
Historically, the biggest challenge to world agriculture has been to achieve a balance between demand for and supply of food. At the level of individual countries, the demand-supply balance can be a critical policy issue for a closed economy, especially if it is a populous economy and its domestic agriculture is not growing sufficiently enough to ensure food supplies, on an enduring basis; it is not so much and not always, of a constraint for an open, and growing economy, which has adequate exchange surpluses to buy food abroad. For the world as a whole, supply-demand balance is always an inescapable prerequisite for warding off hunger and starvation. However, global availability of adequate supply does not necessarily mean that food would automatically move from countries of surplus to countries of deficit if the latter lack in purchasing power. The uneven distribution of hunger, starvation, under- or malnourishment, etc., at the world-level, thus owes itself to the presence of empty-pocket hungry mouths, overwhelmingly confined to the underdeveloped economies. Inasmuch as *a two-square meal' is of elemental significance to basic human existence, the issue of worldwide supply of food has been gaining significance, in recent times, both because the quantum and the composition of demand has been undergoing big changes, and because, in recent years, the capabilities of individual countries to generate uninterrupted chain of food supplies have come under strain. Food production, marketing and prices, especially price-affordability by the poor in the developing world, have become global issues that need global thinking and global solutions. Question: According to the above passage, which of the following are the fundamental solutions for the world food security problem? 1. Setting up more agro-based industries 2. Improving the price affordability by the 3. Regulating the conditions of marketing 4. Providing food subsidy to one and all Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: B
The passage says food production, marketing and prices - especially price-affordability by the poor - have become global issues needing global solutions. So improving price affordability (2) and regulating the conditions of marketing (3) are the fundamental solutions mentioned; agro-based industries and universal food subsidy are not discussed.
Q14·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above
Correct: D
The passage links warming to increased microbial activity, which in turn releases carbon trapped in soil. The most logical corollary is therefore that increasing green cover (a warming-linked change) could trigger the release of carbon trapped in soil.
Q15·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
"The conceptual difficulties in National Income comparisons between underdeveloped and industrialised countries are particularly serious because a part of the national output in various underdeveloped countries is produced without passing through the commercial channels.* Question: In the above statement, the author implies that
Correct: B
The statement says comparisons between underdeveloped and industrialised countries are difficult because part of the output in underdeveloped countries is produced outside commercial channels. The author implies that this non-commercialized sector in underdeveloped countries makes national income comparisons particularly difficult.
Q16·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
All humans digest mother's milk as infants, but until cattle began being domesticated 10,000 years ago, children once weaned no longer needed to digest milk. As a result, they stopped making the enzyme lactase, which breaks down the sugar lactose into simple sugars. After humans began herding cattle, it became tremendously advantageous to digest milk, and lactose tolerance evolved independently among cattle herders in Europe, the Middle East and Africa. Groups not dependent on cattle, such as the Chinese and Thai, remain lactose intolerant. Question: Which among the following is the most logical assumption that can be made from the above passage?
Correct: B
After cattle domestication made drinking milk advantageous, lactose tolerance evolved independently - a genetic change driven by a lasting change in food habits. The passage thus implies that a permanent change in the food habits of a community can bring about a genetic change in its members.
Q17·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
As we look to 2050, when we will need to feed two billion more people, the question of which diet is best has taken on new urgency. The foods we choose to eat in the coming decades will have dramatic ramifications for the planet. Simply put, a diet that revolves around meat and dairy, a way of eating that is on the rise throughout the developing world, will take a greater toll on the world's resources than one that revolves around unrefined grains, nuts, fruits and vegetables. Question: What is the critical message conveyed by the above passage?
Correct: A
The passage says a meat-and-dairy-centred diet, which is spreading through the developing world, will take a greater toll on the world's resources. The inference is that our increasing demand for foods sourced from animals puts a greater burden on our natural resources.
Q18·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
How many numbers are there between 100 and 300 which either begin with or end with 2?
Correct: A
110. Numbers from 100 to 300 that begin with 2 are 200 to 299: 100 numbers. Numbers that end with 2 between 100 and 300 are 102, 112, ..., 292: 20 numbers. The overlap, numbers from 200 to 299 ending in 2, has 10 numbers. Total = 100 + 20 - 10 = 110.
Q19·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
If R and S are different integers both divisible by 5, then which of the following is not necessarily true?
Correct: B
R + S is divisible by 10. Since R and S are both divisible by 5, R-S is divisible by 5, R x S is divisible by 25, and R^2 + S^2 is divisible by 5. But R + S need not be divisible by 10: for example, 5 + 10 = 15, which is not divisible by 10.
Q20·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A military code writes SYSTEM as SYSMET and NEARER as AENRER. Using the same code, FRACTION can be written as:
Correct: D
Split FRACTION into two equal halves: FRAC and TION. The code writes each half in reverse order, as shown by the examples (SYSTEM → SYS + MET and NEARER → AEN + RER). Reversing both halves gives CARF + NOIT = CARFNOIT.
Q21·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
Ram and Shyam work on a job together for four days and complete 60% of it. Ram takes leave then and Shyam works for eight more days to complete the job. How long would Ram take to complete the entire job alone?
Correct: C
10 days. Ram and Shyam together complete 60% in 4 days, so their combined rate = 15% per day. Shyam alone completes the remaining 40% in 8 days, so Shyam's rate = 5% per day. Therefore Ram's rate = 15% - 5% = 10% per day. Ram alone would complete the whole job in 100/10 = 10 days.
Q22·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
A cube has all its faces painted with different colours. It is cut into smaller cubes of equal sizes such that the side of the small cube is one-fourth the big cube. The number of small cubes with only one of the sides painted is:
Correct: B
The big cube is cut into 4 × 4 × 4 = 64 small cubes. Small cubes with exactly one painted face are the centre pieces of each face: on a 4×4 face, the inner 2×2 block = 4 cubes per face, and there are 6 faces → 4 × 6 = 24 cubes.
Q23·CSAT·2016·Logical Reasoning
A person walks 12 km due north, then 15 km due east, after that 19 km due west and then 15 km due south. How far is he from the starting point?
Correct: A
Net north-south movement = 12 km north - 15 km south = 3 km south. Net east-west movement = 15 km east - 19 km west = 4 km west. The person is therefore 3 km south and 4 km west of the start, at a distance of sqrt(3^2 + 4^2) = 5 km.
Q24·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
AB is a vertical trunk of a huge tree with A being the point where the base of the trunk touches the ground. Due to a cyclone, the trunk has been broken at C which is at a height of 12 meters, broken part is partially attached to the vertical portion of the trunk at C. If the end of the broken part B touches the ground at D which is at a distance of 5 meters from A, then the original height of the trunk is:
Correct: B
25 m. The trunk breaks at C, 12 m above the ground. The broken top touches the ground at D, 5 m away from the base A. Triangle ACD is right-angled with AC=12 and AD=5, so the broken part CD = sqrt(12^2+5^2)=13 m. Original height = AC + CD = 12 + 13 = 25 m.
Q25·CSAT·2016·Logical Reasoning
Directions: When three friends A, B and C meet, it was found that each of them wore an outer garment of a different colour. In random order, the garments are jacket, sweater and tie; and the colours are blue, white and black. Their surnames in random order are Ribeiro, Kumar and Singh. Further, we know that: 1. neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater. 2. C wore a tie. 3. Singh's garment was not white. 4. Kumar does not wear a jacket. 5. Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour. 6. Each of the friends wore only one outer garment of only one colour. Question: Who wore the sweater?
Correct: A
C wears the tie. B and A wear the sweater and jacket. Ribeiro does not wear black, and neither B nor Ribeiro wears a white sweater. Testing the constraints: A is Kumar wearing the white sweater, B is Singh wearing the black jacket, and C is Ribeiro wearing the blue tie. Hence A wore the sweater.
Q26·CSAT·2016·Logical Reasoning
Directions: When three friends A, B and C meet, it was found that each of them wore an outer garment of a different colour. In random order, the garments are jacket, sweater and tie; and the colours are blue, white and black. Their surnames in random order are Ribeiro, Kumar and Singh. Further, we know that: 1. neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater. 2. C wore a tie. 3. Singh's garment was not white. 4. Kumar does not wear a jacket. 5. Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour. 6. Each of the friends wore only one outer garment of only one colour. Question: What is the colour of the tie?
Correct: B
The consistent assignment is A = Kumar (white sweater), B = Singh (black jacket) and C = Ribeiro (blue tie): Ribeiro avoids black, Singh avoids white, and Kumar avoids a jacket. Since C wears the tie and Ribeiro cannot wear black, the tie is blue.
Q27·CSAT·2016·Logical Reasoning
Directions: When three friends A, B and C meet, it was found that each of them wore an outer garment of a different colour. In random order, the garments are jacket, sweater and tie; and the colours are blue, white and black. Their surnames in random order are Ribeiro, Kumar and Singh. Further, we know that: 1. neither B nor Ribeiro wore a white sweater. 2. C wore a tie. 3. Singh's garment was not white. 4. Kumar does not wear a jacket. 5. Ribeiro does not like to wear the black colour. 6. Each of the friends wore only one outer garment of only one colour. Question: What is C's surname?
Correct: A
Kumar cannot wear a jacket and C wears the tie, so C must be Kumar; Ribeiro is therefore not C. B cannot wear a white sweater, and Singh avoids white, leaving Ribeiro with the blue tie. Hence C's surname is Ribeiro.
Q28·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
A person is standing on the first step from the bottom of a ladder. If he has to climb 4 more steps to reach exactly the middle step, how many steps does the ladder have?
Correct: B
9. He is on the 1st step. After climbing 4 more steps, he reaches the 5th step. If the 5th step is exactly the middle step, the ladder has equal steps above and below it: 4 below and 4 above. Total steps = 4 + 1 + 4 = 9.
Q29·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
The total emoluments of two persons are the same, but one gets allowances to the extent of 65% of his basic pay and the other gets allowances to the extent of 80% of his basic pay. The ratio of the basic pay of the former to the basic pay of the latter is:
Correct: D
12 : 11. Let the basic pays be B1 and B2. Total emoluments are equal. First person gets 65% allowance, so total = 1.65B1. Second person gets 80% allowance, so total = 1.80B2. Therefore 1.65B1 = 1.80B2, giving B1:B2 = 1.80:1.65 = 180:165 = 12:11.
Q30·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 years ago was 80 years. The average age of the family today is the same as it was 3 years ago, because of an addition of a baby during the intervening period. How old is the baby?
Correct: B
1 year. Three years ago, total age of 5 members = 80. Today those 5 members together are older by 5 x 3 = 15 years, so their total is 95. The present average of the 6-member family is the same as the old average, 80/5 = 16. Present total for 6 members = 6 x 16 = 96. Baby's age = 96 - 95 = 1 year.
Q31·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
An agricultural field is in the form of a rectangle having length X1 meters and breadth X2 meters (X1 and X2 are variables). If X1 + X2 = 40 meters, then the area of the agricultural field will not exceed which one of the following values?
Correct: A
400 sq m. For a rectangle with length x and breadth y, x + y = 40. Area xy is maximum when x = y = 20 by AM-GM or by symmetry. Maximum area = 20 x 20 = 400 sq m.
Q32·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
A person climbs a hill in a straight path from point "O" on the ground in the direction of north-east and reaches a point 'A' after travelling a distance of 5 km. Then, from the point 'A' he moves to point 'B' in the direction of north-west. Let the distance AB be 12 km. Now, how far is the person away from the starting point 'O'?
Correct: B
13 km. The movement from O to A is 5 km in the north-east direction and then from A to B is 12 km in the north-west direction. North-east and north-west directions are perpendicular to each other. Therefore OB = sqrt(5^2 + 12^2) = sqrt(169) = 13 km.
Q33·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
About 15 per cent of global greenhouse gas emissions come from agricultural practices. This includes nitrous oxide from fertilizers; methane from livestock, rice production, and manure storage; and carbon dioxide (CO,) from burning biomass, but this excludes CO, emissions From soil management practices, savannah burning and deforestation. Forestry, land use, and land-use change account for another 17 per cent of greenhouse gas emissions each year, three quarters of which come from tropical deforestation. The remainder is largely from draining and burning tropical peatland. About the same amount of carbon is stored in the world's peatlands as is stored in the Amazon rainforest. Question: Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct: B
The passage shows that agriculture plus forestry and land-use change account for a large share of greenhouse gas emissions. Since land use is a major emissions source, the imperative inference is that we must modify our land use practices to mitigate climate change; it does not call for banning mechanised farming or claim no technological solutions exist.
Q34·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
The statement refers to:
Correct: B
The statement presents politics and economics as mutually shaping each other rather than one dominating the other — it is about the interrelationship of Politics and Economics.
Q35·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
To understand the nature and quantity of Government proper for man, it is necessary to attend to his character. As nature created him for social life, she fitted him for the station she intended. In all cases she made his natural wants greater than his individual powers. No one man is capable, without the aid of society, of supplying his own wants; and those wants, acting upon every individual, impel the whole of them into society. Question: Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct: D
The passage argues that nature made man's wants greater than his individual powers, so that no one can supply his own wants without the aid of society. The natural conclusion is that diverse natural wants forced man towards a social system.
Q36·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
Safe and sustainable sanitation in slums has immeasurable benefits to women and girls in terms of their health, safety, privacy and dignity. However, women do not feature in most of the schemes and policies on urban sanitation. The fact that even now the manual scavenging exists, show that not enough has been done to promote pour-flush toilets and discontinue the use of dry latrines. A more sustained and rigorous campaign needs to be launched towards the right to sanitation on a very large scale. This should primarily focus on the abolition of manual scavenging. Question: With reference to the above passage, consider the following statements: 1. Urban sanitation problems can be fully solved by the abolition of manual scavenging only 2. There is a need to promote greater awareness on safe sanitation practices in urban areas Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct: B
Statement 1 fails because of the word only: the passage does not say abolition of manual scavenging would fully solve urban sanitation problems. Statement 2 is supported - the passage urges promoting pour-flush toilets and ending dry latrines, which requires greater awareness of safe sanitation practices in urban areas.
Q37·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
In the last decade, the banking sector has been restructured with a high degree of automation and products that mainly serve middle-class and upper middle-class society. Today there is a need for a new agenda for the banking and non-banking financial services that serves the common man. Question: Which one of the following is the message that is essentially implied in the above passage?
Correct: D
The passage notes that banking has been restructured to serve the middle and upper-middle class, and that a new agenda is needed to serve the common man. The essentially implied message is the need to promote financial inclusion.
Q38·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
Understanding of the role of biodiversity in the hydrological cycle enables better policy- making. The term biodiversity refers to the variety of plants, animals, microorganisms, and the ecosystems in which they occur. Water and biodiversity are interdependent. In reality, the hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity functions. In turn, vegetation and soil drive the movement of water. Every glass of water we drink has, at least in part, passed through fish, trees, bacteria, soil and other organisms. Passing through these ecosystems, it is cleansed and made fit for consumption. The supply of water is a critical service that the environment provides. Question: Which among the following is the most critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct: A
The passage explains that water and biodiversity are interdependent: the hydrological cycle decides how biodiversity functions, and vegetation and soil drive the movement of water. So biodiversity sustains nature's ability to recycle water.
Q39·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
Climate adaptation may be rendered ineffective if policies are not designed in the context of other development concerns. For instance, a comprehensive strategy that seeks to improve food security in the context of climate change may include a set of coordinated measures related to agricultural extension, crop diversification, integrated water and pest management and agricultural information services. Some of these measures may have to do with climate changes and others with economic development. Question: What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct: D
The passage says climate adaptation may be rendered ineffective if policies are not designed in the context of other development concerns, illustrating with a food-security strategy that bundles coordinated measures. The inference is that climate adaptation should be examined in tandem with other economic development options.
Q40·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
By killing transparency and competition, crony capitalism is harmful to free enterprise, opportunity and economic growth. Crony capitalism, where rich and the influential are alleged to have received land and natural resources and various licences in return for payoffs to venal politicians, is now a major issue to be tackled. One of the greatest dangers to growth of developing economies like India is the middle-income trap where crony capitalism creates oligarchies that slow down the growth. Question: Which among the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?
Correct: C
The passage says crony capitalism kills transparency and competition, harming free enterprise and opportunity, and that it is a major issue to be tackled. The needed response is greater transparency in the functioning of the government and promoting financial inclusion - the opposite of opaque, discretionary favouritism.
Q41·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
In a question paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices - True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is:
Correct: D
Each of the five questions has 2 choices (T/F), so the number of distinct answer sequences is 2⁵ = 32. For no two candidates to have identical sequences, the maximum number of candidates is 32.
Q42·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
A piece of tin is in the form of a rectangle having length 12 cm and width 8 cm. This is used to construct a closed cube. The side of the cube is:
Correct: C
4 cm. The rectangular tin area = 12 x 8 = 96 sq cm. A closed cube has surface area 6a^2. So 6a^2 = 96, giving a^2 = 16 and a = 4 cm.
Q43·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
A daily train is to be introduced between station A and station B starting from each end at 6 AM and the journey is to be completed in 42 hours. What is the number of trains needed in order to maintain the shuttle service?
Correct: C
4. Each one-way journey takes 42 hours. A train starts daily from each end at 6 AM. At any time, trains that started in the previous 42 hours are still on the route. For a daily service, two departures per day are needed, one from each end. Since the route occupancy spans nearly two days, the minimum fleet needed is 4 trains.
Q44·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
Two numbers X and Y are respectively 20% and 28% less than a third number Z. By what percentage is the number Y less than the number X?
Correct: B
10%. Let the third number Z = 100. Then X = 80 and Y = 72. Percentage by which Y is less than X = (80 - 72)/80 x 100 = 8/80 x 100 = 10%.
Q45·CSAT·2016·Logical Reasoning
Directions: Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right, not necessarily kept or painted with the colours in the same order. Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball, not necessarily in the same order. The golf ball is in violet box and is not in box D. Box A, which contains tennis ball, is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. Box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. Box C is fifth from right and next to box B. Box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball. Question: The football is in the box of which colour?
Correct: C
The arrangement is fixed for most boxes: A at the extreme right (orange, tennis), C fifth from right (green, cricket) with B beside it (volleyball), the golf ball in the violet box with the hockey box between golf and volleyball. The football box is the only remaining slot, but both blue and yellow remain unassigned to it, so the colour of the football box cannot be determined.
Q46·CSAT·2016·Logical Reasoning
Directions: Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right, not necessarily kept or painted with the colours in the same order. Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball, not necessarily in the same order. The golf ball is in violet box and is not in box D. Box A, which contains tennis ball, is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. Box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. Box C is fifth from right and next to box B. Box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball. Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Correct: B
Working through the constraints: D holds the football, E holds the golf ball in the violet box, F holds the hockey ball, and the hockey box cannot be blue or yellow, so it must be indigo. Hence F is painted indigo; the other statements are not forced.
Q47·CSAT·2016·Logical Reasoning
Directions: Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F have been painted with six different colours viz., violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow and orange and arranged from left to right, not necessarily kept or painted with the colours in the same order. Each box contains a ball of any one of the following six games: cricket, hockey, tennis, golf, football and volleyball, not necessarily in the same order. The golf ball is in violet box and is not in box D. Box A, which contains tennis ball, is orange in colour and is at the extreme right. The hockey ball is neither in box D nor in box E. Box C having cricket ball is painted green. The hockey ball is neither in the box painted blue nor in the box painted yellow. Box C is fifth from right and next to box B. Box B contains volleyball. The box containing the hockey ball is between the boxes containing golf ball and volleyball. Question: Which one of the following boxes contains the golf ball?
Correct: B
The golf ball is in the violet box and is not in D. The hockey box sits between the golf and volleyball boxes, and A, B and C are fixed as tennis, volleyball and cricket respectively. Only E can hold the golf ball. Hence E contains the golf ball.
Q48·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
The monthly average salary paid to all the employees of a company was Rs. 5000. The monthly average salary paid to male and female employees was Rs. 5200 and Rs. 4200 respectively. Then the percentage of males employed in the company is:
Correct: B
80%. Let male employees be m and female employees be f. Overall average = 5000, male average = 5200, female average = 4200. By alligation, m:f = (5000-4200):(5200-5000) = 800:200 = 4:1. Therefore males are 4/5 = 80% of employees.
Q49·CSAT·2016·Logical Reasoning
Consider the following statements: 1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B. 2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C. 3. B is older than C. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
Correct: D
Statement 1 means A is at least as old as B, and B is older than C, so A must be older than C. The statements do not force A to be strictly older than B, or fix the relation between B/D or D/C.
Q50·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
In a class, there are 18 very tall boys. If these constitute three-fourths of the boys and the total number of boys is two-thirds of the total number of students in the class, what is the number of girls in the class?
Correct: B
12. 18 very tall boys are three-fourths of all boys, so total boys = 18 x 4/3 = 24. Boys are two-thirds of the total class, so total students = 24 x 3/2 = 36. Girls = 36 - 24 = 12.
Q51·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
Anita's mathematics test had 70 problems carrying equal marks i.e., 10 arithmetic, 30 algebra and 30 geometry. Although she answered 70% of the arithmetic, 40% of the algebra and 60% of the geometry problems correctly, she did not pass the test because she got less than 60% marks. The number of more questions she would have to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing marks is:
Correct: B
5. Correct answers: arithmetic = 70% of 10 = 7; algebra = 40% of 30 = 12; geometry = 60% of 30 = 18. Total correct = 37 out of 70. If she did not pass by 5 marks and each question carries equal marks, the passing score must be 42. Hence she fell short by 5 questions' marks.
Q52·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
In aid of charity, every student in a class contributes as many rupees as the number of students in that class. With the additional contribution of Rs. 2 by one student only, the total collection is Rs. 443. Then how many students are there in the class?
Correct: B
21. If there are n students, each contributes n rupees, so total contribution is n^2. One student adds Rs. 2 extra, making n^2 + 2 = 443. Thus n^2 = 441 and n = 21.
Q53·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
30 g of sugar was mixed in 180 ml water in a vessel A, 40 g of sugar was mixed in 280 ml of water in vessel B and 20 g of sugar WAS mixed in 100 ml of water in vessel C. The solution in vessel B is:
Correct: D
Compare sugar concentration: A = 30/180 = 1/6 ≈ 0.167; B = 40/280 = 1/7 ≈ 0.143; C = 20/100 = 1/5 = 0.2. B has the lowest concentration, so the solution in B is less sweet than that in C.
Q54·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
Four friends A, B, C and D need to cross a bridge. A maximum of two persons can cross it at a time. It is night and they just have one lamp. Persons that cross the bridge must carry the lamp to find the way. A pair must walk together at the speed of slower person. After crossing the bridge, the person having faster speed in the pair will return with the lamp each time to accompany another person in the group. Finally, the lamp has to be returned at the original place and the person who returns the lamp has to cross the bridge again without lamp. To cross the bridge, the time taken by them is as follows: A: 1 minute, B: 2 minutes, C: 7 minutes and D: 10 minutes. What is the total minimum time required by all the friends to cross the bridge?
Correct: A
23 minutes. Times are A=1, B=2, C=7 and D=10 minutes. Use A as the returning carrier because A is fastest. A and B cross in 2 minutes; A returns in 1. A and C cross in 7; A returns in 1. A and D cross in 10; A returns with the lamp in 1 because the lamp has to be returned to the original side. Finally A crosses again without the lamp in 1 minute. Total = 2+1+7+1+10+1+1 = 23 minutes.
Q55·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
A class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each period is t
Correct: A
48 minutes. From 11:00 am to 2:27 pm is 3 hours 27 minutes = 207 minutes. Four periods have three rests between them. Total rest time = 3 x 5 = 15 minutes. Teaching time = 207 - 15 = 192 minutes. Each period = 192/4 = 48 minutes.
Q56·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
We are witnessing a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply. The green revolution is a mixed blessing. Over time farmers have come to rely heavily on broadly adapted, high yield crops to the exclusion of varieties adapted to the local conditions. Monocropping vast fields. with the same genetically uniform seeds helps boost yield and meet immediate hunger needs. Yet high-yield varieties are also genetically weaker crops that require expensive chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides. In our focus on increasing the amount of food we produce today, we have accidentally put ourselves at risk for food shortages in future. Question: Which among the following is the most logical and critical inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct: D
The passage warns of a dangerous dwindling of biodiversity in our food supply because monocropping with genetically uniform high-yield varieties has displaced locally adapted varieties. The inference is that the green revolution can pose a threat to biodiversity in food supply and food security in the long run.
Q57·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
Biomass as fuel for power, heat, and transport has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. It comes from agriculture and forest residues as well as from energy crops. The biggest challenge in using biomass residues is a long-term reliable supply delivered to the power plant at reasonable costs; the key problems are logistical constraints and the costs of fuel collection. Energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may have undesirable impacts on food prices. Biomass production is also sensitive to the physical impacts / of a changing climate. Projections of the future role of biomass are probably overestimated, given the limits to the sustainable biomass supply, unless breakthrough technologies substantially increase productivity, Climate-energy models project that biomass use could increase nearly four-fold to around 150 - 200 exajoules, almost a quarter of world primary energy in 2050. However the maximum sustainable technical potential of biomass resources (both residues and energy crops) without disruption of food and forest resources ranges from 80 to 170 exajoules a year by 2050, and only part of this is realistically and economically feasible. In addition, some climate models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage, an unproven technology, to achieve negative emissions and to buy some time during the first half of the century. Some liquid biofuels such as corn-based ethanol, mainly for transport, may aggravate rather than ameliorate carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis. Second generation biofuels, based on ligno-cellulosic feedstocks such as straw, bagasse, grass and wood sustainable production that is high-yielding and emit low levels of greenhouse gases, but these are still in the R & D stage. Question: With reference to the passage, following assumptions have been made: 1. Some climate-energy models suggest that the use of biomass as a fuel for power generation helps in mitigating greenhouse gas emissions 2. It is not possible to use biomass as a fuel for power generation without disrupting food and forest resources Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: A
Assumption 1 is valid: the passage says biomass has the highest mitigation potential of all renewable sources. Assumption 2 is not: the passage discusses supply-chain challenges but never says biomass cannot be used without disrupting food and forest resources.
Q58·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
In the context of using biomass, which of the following is/are the characteristic/ characteristics of the sustainable production of biofuel? 1. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could meet all the primary energy requirements of the world by 2050 2. Biomass as a fuel for power generation does not necessarily disrupt food and forest resources 3. Biomass as a fuel for power generation could help in achieving negative emissions, given certain nascent technologies Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
2 and 3 only. Statement 1 overstates the passage: it says models project biomass may reach nearly a quarter of world primary energy by 2050, not all primary energy requirements. Statement 2 is supported because the passage refers to sustainable technical potential without disruption of food and forest resources. Statement 3 is supported because some models rely on biomass-based carbon capture and storage to achieve negative emissions, although the technology is still unproven.
Q59·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
Which of the following can lead to food security problem? 1. Using agricultural and forest residues as feedstock for power generation. 2. Using biomass for carbon capture and storage. 3. Promoting the cultivation of energy crops. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: B
3 only. The passage directly says energy crops, if not managed properly, compete with food production and may affect food prices; hence promoting energy crops can create a food-security problem. It does not say that using agricultural and forest residues as feedstock itself creates food insecurity. Biomass-based carbon capture is mentioned as an unproven climate technology, not as a direct food-security cause. Therefore only statement 3 follows.
Q60·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
What is/are the present constraint/constraints in using biomass as fuel for power generation? 1. Lack of sustainable supply of biomass 2. Biomass production competes with food production 3. Bio-energy may not always be low carbon on a life-cycle basis Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
1, 2 and 3. The passage says biomass residues face the challenge of a long-term reliable supply at reasonable cost, so statement 1 is a present constraint. It also says energy crops may compete with food production and affect food prices, so statement 2 is a constraint. Finally, it notes that some liquid biofuels may aggravate rather than reduce carbon emissions on a life-cycle basis, so statement 3 is also valid.
Q61·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
There is an order of 19000 quantity of a particular product from a customer. The firm produces 1000 quantity of that product per day out of which 5% are unfit for sale. In how many days will the order be completed?
Correct: C
20. The firm produces 1000 units per day, but 5% are unfit for sale. Saleable output per day = 95% of 1000 = 950 units. To complete an order of 19000 saleable units, days required = 19000/950 = 20.
Q62·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Who of the following is definitely a man?
Correct: C
From the gender and marriage conditions in the set (two married couples with fixed profession–gender constraints), Q is the person whose profession and marital role force him to be male. Hence Q is definitely a man.
Q63·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Who is the lawyer?
Correct: B
The conditions assign the professions uniquely: tracing the marriage and gender constraints shows the lawyer is Q.
Q64·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Who is the spouse of R?
Correct: B
From the two married couples in the set, the spouse of R is T.
Q65·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Who is the artist?
Correct: C
Tracing the profession constraints in the set, the artist is R.
Q66·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Who is the doctor?
Correct: A
Tracing the profession constraints in the set, the doctor is T.
Q67·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
There are some nectar-filled flowers on a tree and some bees are hovering on it. If one bee lands on each flower, one bee will be left out. If two bees land on each flower, one flower will be left out. The number of flowers and bees respectively are:
Correct: C
Let flowers = f and bees = b. One bee per flower leaves one bee out: b = f + 1. Two bees per flower leaves one flower out: f = b/2 + 1. Substituting: f = (f+1)/2 + 1 ⇒ 2f = f + 1 + 2 ⇒ f = 3, so b = 4. Hence 3 flowers and 4 bees.
Q68·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
There are five hobby clubs in a college - photography, yachting, chess, electronics and gardening. The gardening group meets every second day, the electronics group meets every third day, the chess group meets every fourth day, the yachting group meets every fifth day and the photography group meets every sixth day. How many times do all the five groups meet on the same day within 180 days?
Correct: D
3. The five clubs meet every 2nd, 3rd, 4th, 5th and 6th day respectively. They all meet together after every LCM(2,3,4,5,6)=60 days. Within 180 days, this happens on days 60, 120 and 180. Hence the answer is 3.
Q69·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Five people A, B, C, D and E are seated about a round table. Every chair is spaced equidistant from adjacent chairs. (i) C is seated next to A (ii) A is seated two seats from D (iii) B is not seated next to A On the basis of above information, which of the following must be true? 1. D is seated next to B 2. E is seated next to A 3. D and C are separated by two seats Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: B
Fix A. C sits next to A (two mirror positions). D sits two seats from A (one seat between them), and B avoids the seats adjacent to A. The consistent arrangement places D next to B and E next to A, while D and C end up separated by only one seat (not two). Hence statements 1 and 2 only.
Q70·CSAT·2016·Logical Reasoning
There were 50 faculty members comprising 30 males and the rest females. No male faculty member knew music, but many of the female faculty members did. The Head of the institution invited six faculty members to a tea party by draw of lots. At the party it was discovered that no member knew music. The conclusion is that:
Correct: D
The tea party of six was chosen by draw of lots. The fact that no member knew music only rules out music-knowing invitees; it says nothing definite about the gender split of the six chosen, since males and some females alike may not know music. Nothing can be said about the gender composition of the party.
Q71·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced; virtue, rights and duties cannot remain formal abstractions. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as a personal virtue, this solidarity is essential to the practice and understanding of justice. Question: Consider the following statement; "We shall go either for a picnic or for trekking*. Which of the following, if true, would falsify this claim?
Correct: D
The claim is that we shall go either for a picnic or for trekking, i.e., at least one of the two will happen. This is falsified by the situation where neither happens - we do not go either for a picnic or for trekking. Going for one while skipping the other is consistent with the claim.
Q72·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
A person X was driving in a place where all roads ran either north-south or east-west. forming a grid. Roads are at a distance of 1 km from each other in a parallel. He started at the intersection of two roads, drove 3 km north, 3 km west and 4 km south. Which further route could bring him back to his starting point, if the same route is not repeated?
Correct: B
3 km east, then 1 km north. Take the starting intersection as (0,0). After 3 km north the position is (0,3); after 3 km west it is (-3,3); after 4 km south it is (-3,-1). To return to (0,0), the person must go 3 km east and 1 km north.
Q73·CSAT·2016·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following statements 1. The rate of population growth is increasing in the country 2. The death rate is declining faster in the country compared to birth rate 3. The birth rate is declining faster in the country compared to death rate 4. Rural-urban migration is taking place regularly in the country Which one of the following conclusions may be true in the light of the above facts?
Correct: D
The rate of population growth is increasing due to faster decline in death rate than in birth rate. Population growth depends mainly on the gap between birth rate and death rate. If both rates decline but the death rate declines faster, the gap between births and deaths can widen, so population growth may increase. Rural-urban migration does not explain national population growth.
Q74·CSAT·2016·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A ate grapes and pineapple; B ate grapes and oranges; C ate oranges, pineapple and apple; D ate grapes, apple and pineapple. After taking fruits, B and C fell sick. In the light of the above facts, it can be said that the cause of sickness was:
Correct: D
Compare the fruits eaten by the sick people B (grapes, oranges) and C (oranges, pineapple, apple) with those eaten by D (grapes, apple, pineapple), who did not fall sick. The only fruit common to both sick people and absent in D is oranges — so the cause of sickness was oranges.
Q75·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced; virtue, rights and duties cannot remain formal abstractions. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as a personal virtue, this solidarity is essential to the practice and understanding of justice. Question: Which one of the following is the crux of this passage?
Correct: C
The passage states that the correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. The best summary is that a balance between rights and duties is crucial to the delivery of justice in a society.
Q76·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
In general, religious traditions stress our duty to god, or to some universal ethical principle. Our duties to one another derive from these. The religious concept of rights is primarily derived from our relationship to this divinity or principle and the implication it has on our other relationships. This correspondence between rights and duties is critical to any further understanding of justice. But, for justice to be practiced; virtue, rights and duties cannot remain formal abstractions. They must be grounded in a community (common unity) bound together by a sense of common union (communion). Even as a personal virtue, this solidarity is essential to the practice and understanding of justice. Question: With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Human relationships are derived from their religious traditions 2. Human beings can be duty bound only if they believe in god 3. Religious traditions are essential to practice and understand justice Which of these assumption(s) is/are valid?
Correct: A
Assumption 1 is valid: the passage says our duties to one another derive from our duty to god or a universal ethical principle, i.e., human relationships derive from religious traditions. Assumption 2 is not - the passage allows a universal ethical principle, not necessarily belief in god. Assumption 3 is not - the passage grounds justice in community solidarity, not in religious traditions.
Q77·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance. Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should be defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability. Question: According to the passage, which one of the following is not a means of enhancing internal accountability of civil services?
Correct: D
The question asks which is NOT a means of enhancing internal accountability. Better job security and safeguards, supervision by the Central Vigilance Commission and judicial review of executive decisions are all internal-control mechanisms. Seeking accountability through enhanced participation by people in decision making is external accountability, so it is the correct choice.
Q78·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance. Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should be defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability. Question: Which one of the following is the essential message implied by this passage?
Correct: D
The passage surveys the deficiencies and then outlines concrete reforms: reviewing Articles 311 and 312, depoliticizing civil services, statutory civil service boards and decentralization. The essential message is that there is a need and scope for reforms to improve the accountability of civil services.
Q79·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance. Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should be defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability. Question: With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Political executive is an obstacle to the accountability of the civil services to the society 2. In the present framework of Indian polity, the political executive is no longer accountable to the society Which of these assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: A
Assumption 1 is valid: the passage proposes defining the roles of civil services and the political executive so that management is depoliticized, implying the political executive is an obstacle to civil services' accountability to society. Assumption 2 is not: nothing in the passage says the political executive is no longer accountable to society.
Q80·CSAT·2016·Reading Comprehension
Accountability, or the lack of it, in governance generally, and civil services, in particular, is a major factor underlying the deficiencies in governance and public administration. Designing an effective framework for accountability has been a key element of the reform agenda. A fundamental issue is whether civil services should be accountable to the political executive of the day or to society at large. In other words, how should internal and external accountability be reconciled? Internal accountability is sought to be achieved by internal performance monitoring, official supervision by bodies like the Central Vigilance Commission and Comptroller and Auditor General, and judicial review of executive decisions. Articles 311 and 312 of the Indian Constitution provide job security and safeguards to the civil services, especially the All India Services. The framers of the Constitution had envisaged that provision of these safeguards would result in a civil service that is not totally subservient to the political executive but will have the strength to function in larger public interest. The need to balance internal and external accountability is thus built into the Constitution. The issue is where to draw the line. Over the years, the emphasis seems to have tilted in favour of greater internal accountability of the civil services to the political leaders of the day who in turn are expected to be externally accountable to the society at large through the election process. This system for seeking accountability to society has not worked out, and has led to several adverse consequences for governance. Some special measures can be considered for improving accountability in civil services. Provisions of articles 311 and 312 should be reviewed and laws and regulations framed to ensure external accountability of civil services. The proposed Civil Services Bill seeks to address some of these requirements. The respective roles of professional civil services and the political executive should be defined so that professional managerial functions and management of civil services are depoliticized. For this purpose, effective statutory civil service boards should be created at the centre and in the states. Decentralization and devolution of authority to bring government and decision making closer to the people also helps to enhance accountability. Question: According to the passage, which of the following factor/factors led to the adverse consequences for governance/public administration? 1. Inability of civil services to strike a balance between internal and external accountabilities 2. Lack of sufficient professional training to the officers of All India Services 3. Lack of proper service benefits in civil services 4. Lack of Constitutional provisions to define the respective roles of professional civil services vis-a-vis political executive in this context Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: C
The passage attributes deficiencies to the failure to strike a balance between internal and external accountabilities (1) and to the absence of defined constitutional roles for civil services vis-a-vis the political executive (4). It does not blame inadequate professional training or lack of service benefits.