80 CSAT questions from the official UPSC 2018 Prelims paper, each with the verified answer key and an explanation.
1–80 of 80
Q1·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
A male tiger was removed from Pench Tiger Reserve and was relocated in Panna National Park. Later, this tiger trekked toward his home 250 miles away. The trek of this solitary tiger highlights a crisis. Many wildlife reserves exist as islands of fragile habitat in a vast sea of humanity, yet tigers can range over a hundred miles, seeking prey, mates and territory. Nearly a third of India's tigers live outside tiger reserves, a situation that is dangerous for both human and animal. Prey and tigers can only disperse if there are recognized corridors of land between protected areas to allow unmolested passage. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. The strategy of conservation of wildlife by relocating them from one protected area to another is not often successful. 2. India does not have suitable legislation to save the tigers, and its conservation efforts have failed which forced the tigers to live outside protected areas. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: A
Assumption 1 is valid: the tiger relocated to Panna trekked 250 miles back home, showing relocation between protected areas is not often successful. Assumption 2 is not: the passage attributes tigers living outside reserves to the lack of recognized corridors between habitat islands, not to failed legislation.
Q2·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
A male tiger was removed from Pench Tiger Reserve and was relocated in Panna National Park. Later, this tiger trekked toward his home 250 miles away. The trek of this solitary tiger highlights a crisis. Many wildlife reserves exist as islands of fragile habitat in a vast sea of humanity, yet tigers can range over a hundred miles, seeking prey, mates and territory. Nearly a third of India's tigers live outside tiger reserves, a situation that is dangerous for both human and animal. Prey and tigers can only disperse if there are recognized corridors of land between protected areas to allow unmolested passage. Question: Which of the following is the most rational and crucial message given by the passage?
Correct: B
The passage says prey and tigers can disperse only if there are recognized corridors of land between protected areas allowing unmolested passage, and that the trek of the relocated tiger highlights this crisis. The logical inference is that safe wildlife corridors between protected areas are an essential aspect of conservation efforts.
Q3·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
The quest for cheap and plentiful meat has resulted in factory farms where more and more animals are squeezed into smaller lots in cruel and shocking conditions. Such practices have resulted in many of the world's health pandemics such as the avian flu. Worldwide, livestock are increasingly raised in cruel, cramped conditions, where animals spend their short lives under artificial light, pumped full of antibiotics and growth hormones, until the day they are slaughtered. Meat production is water-intensive. 15000 litres of water is needed for every kilogram of meat compared with 3400 litres for rice, 3300 litres for eggs and 255 litres for a kilogram of potatoes. Question: What is the most rational and crucial message given by the passage?
Correct: D
The passage condemns the industrial farming model of squeezing animals into cruel, cramped conditions, which has produced pandemics like avian flu, and implies this model of meat production is unsustainable in its environmental cost. It does not demand stopping meat production immediately, only that the environmental cost of industrial meat production is unsustainable.
Q4·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
If x - y = 8, then which of the following must be true? 1. Both x and y must be positive for any value of x and y. 2. If x is positive, y must be negative for any value of x and y. 3. If x is negative, y must be positive for any value of x and y. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
Neither 1 nor 2 nor 3. The equation x - y = 8 does not force both x and y to be positive; for example x=0, y=-8. If x is positive, y need not be negative; x=10, y=2 works. If x is negative, then y=x-8 is even smaller and cannot be positive. Hence none of the three statements must be true.
Q5·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Graph context: composition of gross tax revenue over 1990-91 to 2010-11. Excise decreases from about 43% to about 18-19%; Customs decreases from about 36% to about 10%; Corporate tax increases from about 9% to above 40%; Personal income tax rises from about 12% to around 18-20%; Service tax rises from near 0% to around 10%. With reference to the graph, which of the following is/are the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made? 1. During the given period, the revenue from Direct Taxes as percentage of gross tax revenue has increased while that of Indirect Taxes decreased. 2. The trend in the revenue from Excise Duty demonstrates that the growth of manufacturing sector has been negative during the given period. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: A
1 only. Direct taxes include corporate tax, personal income tax and service tax; their combined share rises sharply over the period. Indirect taxes include excise and customs; their combined share falls. Therefore statement 1 is a logical inference. Statement 2 is not valid because a declining share of excise duty in gross tax revenue does not by itself prove negative growth of manufacturing; it may also reflect tax-policy changes or faster growth of other taxes.
Q6·CSAT·2018·Logical Reasoning
Table context: GDP growth rate and Tele-density data by State are: State 1 income 704 GDP 9.52 Tele-density 70.27; State 2 419 5.31 35.88; State 3 254 10.83 50.07; State 4 545 9.78 5.94; State 5 891 10.8 76.12; State 6 1077 11.69 77.5; State 7 900 8.88 104.86; State 8 395 5.92 6; State 9 720 7.76 82.25; State 10 893 9.55 96.7; State 11 363 4.7 57.7; State 12 966 7.85 63.8; State 13 495 9.37 52.3; State 14 864 5.46 97.9; State 15 497 7.48 62.3; State 16 777 7.03 93.8; State 17 335 5.8 49.9; State 18 599 7.49 47.84. With reference to the table, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Nowadays, prosperity of an already high performing State cannot be sustained without making further large investments in its telecom infrastructure. 2. Nowadays, a very high Tele-density is the most essential condition for promoting the business and economic growth in a State. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: D
The table only gives GDP growth and tele-density for states at one point in time. It does not establish that high-performing states need further telecom investment to sustain prosperity, nor that very high tele-density is the most essential condition for business and economic growth. Neither assumption is valid.
Q7·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Table context: The table gives GDP growth rate and Tele-density data of different States of a country in a particular year. Columns are State, Per capita income ($), GDP growth rate (%), Tele-density. Data: State 1: 704, 9.52, 70.27; State 2: 419, 5.31, 35.88; State 3: 254, 10.83, 50.07; State 4: 545, 9.78, 5.94; State 5: 891, 10.8, 76.12; State 6: 1077, 11.69, 77.5; State 7: 900, 8.88, 104.86; State 8: 395, 5.92, 6; State 9: 720, 7.76, 82.25; State 10: 893, 9.55, 96.7; State 11: 363, 4.7, 57.7; State 12: 966, 7.85, 63.8; State 13: 495, 9.37, 52.3; State 14: 864, 5.46, 97.9; State 15: 497, 7.48, 62.3; State 16: 777, 7.03, 93.8; State 17: 335, 5.8, 49.9; State 18: 599, 7.49, 47.84. Question: With reference to the above table, which of the following is/are the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made? 1. Higher per capita income is generally associated with higher Tele-density. 2. Higher GDP growth rate always ensures higher per capita income. 3. Higher GDP growth rate does not necessarily ensure higher Tele-density. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
1 and 3. The table broadly shows that States with higher per capita income tend to have higher tele-density, so statement 1 is a reasonable inference. Statement 2 uses the word always and is contradicted by the table: higher GDP growth does not always correspond to higher per capita income. Statement 3 is valid because high GDP growth does not necessarily produce high tele-density; for example, some States with strong GDP growth have only moderate tele-density.
Q8·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Graph context: key policy rates are shown from July 2010 to June 2011. Repo Rate rises from 5.50 to 7.50; Reverse Repo Rate rises from 4.00 to 6.50; CRR remains approximately flat around 6.00. The graph indicates repeated increases in policy rates by the Central Bank. Which one of the following can be the most likely reason for such action?
Correct: D
The graph shows the central bank repeatedly raising the repo and reverse repo rates from July 2010 to June 2011. Raising policy rates is a monetary tightening measure adopted primarily to curb inflation. Hence the most likely reason for the repeated increases is an anti-inflationary stance.
Q9·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Lakshmi, her brother, her daughter and her son are badminton players. A game of doubles is about to begin (i) Lakshmi's brother is directly across the net from her daughter. (ii) Her son is diagonally across the net from the worst player's sibling. (iii) The best player and the worst player are on the same side of the net. Who is the best player?
Correct: A
Lakshmi's brother is directly across the net from her daughter. Case 1: the son partners his sister, so the son is diagonally across from the brother; the brother is then the worst player's sibling, making Lakshmi the worst player, and the best player on the same side is the brother. Case 2: the son partners the brother, so the son is diagonally across from the daughter; the daughter is then the worst player's sibling, making the son the worst player, and the best player on the same side is again the brother. In both cases the best player is Lakshmi's brother.
Q10·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Graph context: Two line graphs show populations, in millions, for age groups <15, 15-64 and 64+ in countries A and B for years 1950, 1970, 1990, 2010, 2030 and 2050. In Country A, the <15 line is about 0.20, 0.32, 0.31, 0.28, 0.25 and 0.22; the 15-64 line is about 0.35, 0.48, 0.80, 1.00, 0.98 and 0.88; the 64+ line is about 0.05, 0.05, 0.08, 0.13, 0.23 and 0.32. In Country B, the <15 line is about 0.15, 0.23, 0.31, 0.35, 0.34 and 0.28; the 15-64 line is about 0.20, 0.32, 0.48, 0.75, 1.05 and 1.10; the 64+ line is about 0.03, 0.04, 0.06, 0.10, 0.16 and 0.25. Question: Consider the following graphs. The curves in the graphs indicate different age groups in the populations of two countries A and B over a period of few decades. With reference to the above graphs, which of the following are the most logical and rational inferences that can be made? 1. Over the last two and a half decades, the dependency ratio for country B has decreased. 2. By the end of next two and a half decades, the dependency ratio of country A will be much less than that of country B. 3. In the next two decades, the work-force relative to its total population will increase in country B as compared to country A. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
1 and 3 only. In country B, the working-age population rises faster than the dependent groups over the recent decades, so its dependency ratio decreases; statement 1 is valid. By 2050, country A's dependency ratio is not much less than country B's; visually A has a substantial old-age population and a smaller working-age base than B, so statement 2 is not valid. In the next two decades, country B's working-age population continues to rise relative to its total population more favourably than in country A; statement 3 is valid.
Q11·CSAT·2018·Logical Reasoning
Consider six circular figures divided into six sectors. A small square and a small triangle move sector-by-sector in regular directions across figures I to VI. In figure I, the square is near the upper sector and the triangle near the lower-left sector; in figure II, the square is upper-right and triangle lower sector; in figure III, square and triangle are both on the right side; in figure IV, triangle is upper-right and square lower sector; in figure V, triangle is top and square lower-left; in figure VI, both symbols are on the left side. Following the same sequence, which figure will appear at stage VII?
Correct: B
Across figures I to VI the square and the triangle each advance one sector per figure in their own fixed directions. Continuing both cycles to stage VII places the square near the top sector and the triangle on the left-lower side.
Q12·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A person bought a refrigerator worth Rs. 22,800 with 12.5% interest compounded yearly. At the end of first year he paid Rs. 8,650 and at the end of second year Rs. 9,125. How much will he have to pay at the end of third year to clear the debt?
Correct: D
At 12.5% interest the amount due multiplies by 1.125 each year. Year 1: 22,800 x 1.125 = 25,650; paying 8,650 leaves 17,000. Year 2: 17,000 x 1.125 = 19,125; paying 9,125 leaves 10,000. Year 3: 10,000 x 1.125 = 11,250, which must be paid to clear the debt.
Q13·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
A lift has the capacity of 18 adults or 30 children. How many children can board the lift with 12 adults?
Correct: B
10. Capacity equivalence: 18 adults = 30 children, so 1 adult = 30/18 = 5/3 children. Twelve adults occupy the capacity of 12 x 5/3 = 20 children. Remaining child-capacity = 30 - 20 = 10 children.
Q14·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following figures A and B. The manufacturing cost and projected sales for a product are shown in the above figures A and B respectively. What is the minimum number of pieces that should be manufactured to avoid a loss?
Correct: A
The break-even point is where the manufacturing cost (Figure A) equals the projected sales (Figure B); the figures show this point at 2,000 pieces. Below 2,000 pieces the cost exceeds the sales value, so 2,000 is the minimum number of pieces that must be manufactured to avoid a loss.
Q15·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider a 3 x 3 matrix of small symbolic figures. The symbols combine three features: a curved arc or straight bar, a marker at one end (filled circle, filled square or triangular arrowhead), and hanging short vertical strokes. The bottom-right cell is missing; the pattern changes the marker type and the position/number of hanging strokes across rows and columns. To fit the question mark, the correct answer is:
Correct: A
Each cell of the 3 × 3 matrix combines three features: the bar (straight or curved), the end marker (filled circle, filled square or triangular arrowhead) and the hanging strokes. Reading across each row, the marker type advances in the fixed cycle circle → square → arrowhead, and the bar orientation alternates; reading down each column, the number of hanging strokes increases by one and the bend pattern alternates. Applying the row and column rules to the bottom-right cell gives a filled square at the left end of a horizontal bar with two hanging bent strokes.
Q16·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Average hourly earnings per year (E) of the workers in a firm are represented in figures A and B as follows: Fig. A: hourly earnings (E) rise from 20 to 40 over the years 2013 to 2017. Fig. B: the same earnings are plotted on a compressed vertical scale from 10 to 200. From the figures, it is observed that the
Correct: C
The slopes of the graphs are the same. Both figures show the same hourly earnings for the same years: 20, 25, 30, 35 and 40, so the values and the range do not differ. The increase is 5 units per year in both representations, so the slope or rate of increase is the same. Therefore option C is the correct observation.
Q17·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Graph context: birthrate and death rate of a country are plotted from 1970 to 2010. Birthrate declines from about 30 per thousand in 1970 to about 18 per thousand by 2010, flattening after about 2000. Death rate declines from about 25 per thousand in 1970 to about 6-7 per thousand by 2010, flattening after about 2000. With reference to the above graph, consider the following statements considering 1970 as base year: 1. Population has stabilized after 35 years. 2. Population growth rate has stabilized after 35 years. 3. Death rate has fallen by 10% in the first 10 years. 4. Birthrate has stabilized after 35 years. Which of the above are the most logical and rational statements that can be made from the graph?
Correct: D
2 and 4. Population itself has not stabilized merely because birth and death rates are shown; statement 1 is not a logical inference. Population growth rate means the gap between birthrate and death rate. Around 2005 to 2010, that gap becomes nearly stable, so statement 2 is logical. Death rate falls from about 25 to about 20 in the first ten years, which is a fall of about 20 percent, not 10 percent; statement 3 is incorrect. Birthrate also becomes nearly stable after about 35 years, so statement 4 is logical.
Q18·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Graph context: birthrate and death rate of a country are plotted from 1970 to 2010. Birthrate declines from about 30 per thousand in 1970 to about 18 per thousand by 2010, flattening after about 2000. Death rate declines from about 25 per thousand in 1970 to about 6-7 per thousand by 2010, flattening after about 2000. Looking at the graph, it can be inferred that from 1990 to 2010
Correct: D
Between 1990 and 2010, the gap between the birthrate and the death rate first narrows and then both curves flatten. The population growth rate therefore neither increases nor decreases consistently over the period; it shows no clear trend.
Q19·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
For a sports meet, a winners' stand comprising three wooden blocks is in the following form. There are six different colours available to choose from and each of the three wooden blocks is to be painted such that no two of them has the same colour. In how many different ways can the winners' stand be painted?
Correct: A
The three wooden blocks must each receive a different colour. The first block can be painted in 6 ways, the second in 5 and the third in 4, giving 6 x 5 x 4 = 120 different ways to paint the winners' stand.
Q20·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Graph context: expected and actual progress of work are plotted from 1st April to 1st September. Expected progress rises steadily from 0% on 1st April to about 25% in May, 50% in June, about 60% in July, about 70% in August and 100% by 1st September. Actual progress rises more slowly from 0% to about 10% in May, about 22% in June, about 32% in July, about 43% in August, then sharply reaches 100% before 1st September. Which statement is not correct with reference to the graph?
Correct: D
On 1st June, the actual progress is below the expected progress, so option A is correct. The actual line is steepest during August, so option B is correct. The actual work reaches 100 percent at about 1st September, while expected progress is still slightly below 100 percent, so option C is correct. Therefore the statement saying actual progress was at no time more than expected is not correct, because actual progress exceeds expected near the end.
Q21·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Twelve equal squares are placed to fit in a rectangle of diagonal 5 cm. There are three rows containing four squares each. No gaps are left between adjacent squares. What is the area of each square?
Correct: C
1 sq cm. Let the side of each small square be s. Twelve squares are arranged as 4 columns and 3 rows, so the rectangle dimensions are 4s by 3s. Its diagonal is sqrt((4s)^2 + (3s)^2) = 5s. Given diagonal = 5 cm, s = 1 cm, so area of each square = 1 sq cm.
Q22·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Consider the sequence given below 4/12/95, 1/1/96, 29/1/96, 26/2/96,.... What is the next term of the series?
Correct: B
Each term is 28 days after the previous one: 4/12/95 to 1/1/96, 1/1/96 to 29/1/96, and 29/1/96 to 26/2/96 are all gaps of 28 days. Adding 28 days to 26/2/96 gives 25/3/96, so the next term is 25/3.
Q23·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
There are 24 equally spaced points lying on the circumference of a circle. What is the maximum number of equilateral triangles that can be drawn by taking sets of three points as the vertices?
Correct: C
8. With 24 equally spaced points, an equilateral triangle is formed by choosing vertices 120 degrees apart. Since 120 degrees corresponds to 24/3 = 8 intervals, starting from each of the 24 points gives the same triangle counted three times. Number of triangles = 24/3 = 8.
Q24·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
A shopkeeper sells an article at Rs. 40 and gets X% profit. However, when he sells it at Rs. 20, he faces same percentage of loss. What is the original cost of the article?
Correct: C
Rs. 30. Let cost price be C and profit/loss percentage be p. Selling at 40 gives profit: 40 = C(1+p). Selling at 20 gives equal percentage loss: 20 = C(1-p). Adding the two equations gives 60 = 2C, so C = 30.
Q25·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
Monoculture carries great risks. A single disease or pest can wipe out swathes of the world's food production, an alarming prospect given that its growing and wealthier population will eat 70% more by 2050. The risks are magnified by the changing climate. As the planet warms and monsoon rains intensify, farmlands in Asia will flood. North America will suffer more intense droughts, and crop diseases will spread to new latitudes. Question: Which of the following is the most logical, rational and crucial message given by the passage?
Correct: A
The passage warns that monoculture carries great risks - a single disease or pest can wipe out swathes of food production - and that climate change magnifies these risks. The inference is that preserving crop genetic diversity is an insurance against the effects of climate change, not that monoculture is the only way to feed the world.
Q26·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
The practice of dieting has become an epidemic; everyone is looking out for a way to attain that perfect body. We are all different with respect to our ethnicity, genetics, family history, gender, age, physical and mental and spiritual health status, lifestyles and preferences. Thereby we also differ in what foods we tolerate or are sensitive to. So we really cannot reduce so many complexities into one diet or diet book. This explains the failure of diets across the world in curbing obesity. Unless the reasons for weight gain are well understood and addressed and unless habits are changed permanently, no diet is likely to succeed. Question: What is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct: D
The passage says we differ in ethnicity, genetics, gender, age, health and lifestyles, and therefore in the foods we tolerate, so such complexities cannot be reduced to a single formula. The essential message is that there is no perfect diet or one solution for obesity.
Q27·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
India's educational system is modelled on the mass education system that developed in the 19th century in Europe and later spread around the world. The goal of the system is to condition children as 'good' citizens and productive workers. This suited the industrial age that needed the constant supply of a compliant workforce with a narrow set of capabilities. Our educational institutes resemble factories with bells, uniforms and batch-processing of learners, designed to get learners to conform. But, from an economic point of view, the environment today is very different. It is a complex, volatile and globally interconnected world. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. India continues to be a developing country essentially due to its faulty education system. 2. Today's learners need to acquire new-age skill-sets. 3. A good number of Indians go to some developed countries for education because the educational systems there are a perfect reflection of the societies in which they function. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: B
Assumption 2 is valid: the passage contrasts the old factory-model education suited to the industrial age with today's complex, volatile and globally interconnected world, implying today's learners need new-age skill-sets. Assumptions 1 and 3 are not supported - the passage says nothing about India's development being due to a faulty education system or about Indians studying abroad.
Q28·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
Being a member of the WTO, India is bound by the agreements that have been signed and ratified by its members, including itself. According to Article 6 of the Agreement on Agriculture, providing minimum support prices for agricultural products is considered distorting and is subject to limits. The subsidy arising from 'minimum supports' cannot exceed 10 per cent of the value of agricultural production for developing countries. PDS in India entails minimum support prices and public stockholding of food grains. It is possible that, in some years, the subsidy to producers will exceed 10 per cent of the value of agricultural production. Question: What is the crucial message conveyed by the above passage?
Correct: C
The passage says that under WTO rules India's minimum support prices for agriculture are treated as distorting and subject to limits. Since India uses such price support for food security, the implication is that for India food security collides with trade obligations.
Q29·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
The Arctic's vast reserves of fossil fuel, fish and minerals are now accessible for a longer period in a year. But unlike Antarctica, which is protected from exploitation by the Antarctic Treaty framed during the Cold War and is not subject to territorial claims by any country, there is no legal regime protecting the Arctic from industrialization, especially at a time when the world craves for more and more resources. The distinct possibility of ice-free summer has prompted countries with Arctic coastline to scramble for great chunks of the melting ocean. Question: Which one of the following is the most important implication of the passage?
Correct: B
The passage says the Arctic's resources are becoming accessible for longer periods as ice melts, and that unlike Antarctica there is no legal regime protecting it from industrialisation. Melting ice is thus opening a resource and territorial contest - melting of summer ice in the Arctic leads to changes in the geopolitics.
Q30·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
Scientific knowledge has its dangers, but so has every great thing. Over and beyond the dangers with which it threatens the present, it opens up as nothing else can, the vision of a possible happy world; a world without poverty, without war, with little illness. Science, whatever unpleasant consequences it may have by the way, is in its very nature a liberator. Question: Which one of the following is the most important implication of the passage?
Correct: A
The passage admits science has dangers but opens up the vision of a possible happy world - without poverty, without war, with little illness - and calls science in its very nature a liberator. The author's view is best captured by the idea that a happy world is a dream of science.
Q31·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
Cooking with biomass and coal in India is now recognized to cause major health problems, with women and children in poor populations facing the greatest risk. There are more than 10 lakh premature deaths each year from household air pollution due to polluting cooking fuels with another 1.5 lakh due to their contribution to general outdoor air pollution in the country. Although the fraction of the Indian population using clean cooking fuels, such as LPG, natural gas and electricity, is slowly rising, the number using polluting solid fuels as their primary cooking fuel has remained static for nearly 30 years at about 70 crore. Question: Which of the following is the most crucial and logical inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct: D
The passage links premature deaths from household air pollution to cooking with biomass and coal, with women and children in poor households facing the greatest risk. The inference is that access to clean cooking gas can reduce premature deaths in poor households; it does not claim that rural people are already giving up solid fuels.
Q32·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
All actions to address climate change ultimately involve costs. Funding is vital in order for countries like India to design and implement adaptation and mitigation plans and projects. The problem is more severe for developing countries like India, which would be one of the hardest hit by climate change, given its need to finance development. Most countries do indeed treat climate change as real threat and are striving to address it in a more comprehensive and integrated manner with the limited resources at their disposal. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Climate change is not a challenge for developed countries. 2. Climate change is a complex policy issue and also a development issue for many countries. 3. Ways and means of finance must be found to enable developing countries to enhance their adaptive capacity. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: C
Assumption 2 is valid: the passage treats climate change as both a policy and a development issue, more severe for developing countries that must also finance development. Assumption 3 is valid: since funding is vital for adaptation and mitigation, ways and means of finance must be found to enhance adaptive capacity. Assumption 1 is wrong - the passage does not say developed countries face no challenge.
Q33·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S, in Science college, Arts college, Commerce college and Engineering college, situated in four different States, viz., Gujarat, Rajasthan, Assam and Kerala. It is given that: D is studying in Assam; Arts college is located in city S which is in Rajasthan; A is studying in Commerce college; B is studying in city Q; Science college is located in Kerala. A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S, in Science college, Arts college, Commerce college and Engineering college, situated in four different States, viz., Gujarat, Rajasthan, Assam and Kerala. It is given that: D is studying in Assam; Arts college is located in city S which is in Rajasthan; A is studying in Commerce college; B is studying in city Q; Science college is located in Kerala. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct: A
D studies in Assam. The Arts college is in city S (Rajasthan), the Science college is in Kerala and A studies in the Commerce college, so the remaining college for D is Engineering. Hence the Engineering college is located in Assam.
Q34·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S, in Science college, Arts college, Commerce college and Engineering college, situated in four different States, viz., Gujarat, Rajasthan, Assam and Kerala. It is given that: D is studying in Assam; Arts college is located in city S which is in Rajasthan; A is studying in Commerce college; B is studying in city Q; Science college is located in Kerala. A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S, in Science college, Arts college, Commerce college and Engineering college, situated in four different States, viz., Gujarat, Rajasthan, Assam and Kerala. It is given that: D is studying in Assam; Arts college is located in city S which is in Rajasthan; A is studying in Commerce college; B is studying in city Q; Science college is located in Kerala. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding Engineering college?
Correct: D
The Arts college is in city S (Rajasthan), the Science college is in Kerala and A studies in the Commerce college. The remaining college is Engineering, and the remaining student D studies in Assam; hence D is studying in the Engineering college.
Q35·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S, in Science college, Arts college, Commerce college and Engineering college, situated in four different States, viz., Gujarat, Rajasthan, Assam and Kerala. It is given that: D is studying in Assam; Arts college is located in city S which is in Rajasthan; A is studying in Commerce college; B is studying in city Q; Science college is located in Kerala. A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S, in Science college, Arts college, Commerce college and Engineering college, situated in four different States, viz., Gujarat, Rajasthan, Assam and Kerala. It is given that: D is studying in Assam; Arts college is located in city S which is in Rajasthan; A is studying in Commerce college; B is studying in city Q; Science college is located in Kerala. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct: A
The Arts college is located in city S which is in Rajasthan, while D is studying in Assam. Since D is in Assam, D cannot be studying in city S, so the statement 'D is not studying in city S' is correct.
Q36·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S, in Science college, Arts college, Commerce college and Engineering college, situated in four different States, viz., Gujarat, Rajasthan, Assam and Kerala. It is given that: D is studying in Assam; Arts college is located in city S which is in Rajasthan; A is studying in Commerce college; B is studying in city Q; Science college is located in Kerala. C is studying in
Correct: B
D studies in Assam and A studies in the Commerce college. The Science college is in Kerala and the Arts college is in city S (Rajasthan). Hence D must be in the Engineering college (Assam) and the remaining college for C is the Arts college, which is in Rajasthan.
Q37·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Science college is located in
Correct: A
A is in the Commerce college, C is in the Arts college at city S (Rajasthan) and D is in the Engineering college in Assam. The remaining student B must be in the Science college, and B is studying in city Q. Hence the Science college is located in city Q.
Q38·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A, B, C and D are students. They are studying in four different cities, viz., P, Q, R and S, in Science college, Arts college, Commerce college and Engineering college, situated in four different States, viz., Gujarat, Rajasthan, Assam and Kerala. It is given that: D is studying in Assam; Arts college is located in city S which is in Rajasthan; A is studying in Commerce college; B is studying in city Q; Science college is located in Kerala. A is studying in
Correct: B
A studies in the Commerce college. The Arts college is in Rajasthan (city S), D is in Assam and the Science college is in Kerala. The only remaining State for A is Gujarat.
Q39·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
19 boys turn out for playing hockey. Of these, 11 are wearing hockey shirts and 14 are wearing hockey pants. There are no boys without shirts and/or pants. What is the number of boys wearing full uniform?
Correct: C
6. There are 19 boys. 11 wear shirts and 14 wear pants, and nobody is without shirt and/or pants. By inclusion-exclusion, boys wearing both = 11 + 14 - 19 = 6.
Q40·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A student has to get 40% marks to pass in an examination. Suppose he gets 30 marks and fails by 30 marks, then what are the maximum marks in the examination?
Correct: C
He scored 30 marks and failed by 30, so the pass mark is 60. Since 40% of the maximum marks is 60, the maximum marks are 60 x 100/40 = 150.
Q41·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Two persons, A and B are running on a circular track. At the start, B is ahead of A and their positions make an angle of 30 degrees at the centre of the circle. When A reaches the point diametrically opposite to his starting point, he meets B. What is the ratio of speeds of A and B, if they are running with uniform speeds?
Correct: A
6:5. B is initially 30 degrees ahead of A. When A reaches the point diametrically opposite its start, A has covered 180 degrees. At that meeting point, B has covered 180 - 30 = 150 degrees. Since both ran for the same time, speed ratio A:B = 180:150 = 6:5.
Q42·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
A bag contains 15 red balls and 20 black balls. Each ball is numbered either 1 or 2 or 3. 20% of the red balls are numbered 1 and 40% of them are numbered 3. Similarly, among the black balls, 45% are numbered 2 and 30% are numbered 3. A boy picks a ball at random. He wins if the ball is red and numbered 3 or if it is black and numbered 1 or 2. What are the chances of his winning?
Correct: B
4/7. Red balls numbered 3 = 40% of 15 = 6. Among black balls, 30% are numbered 3, so black balls numbered 1 or 2 = 70% of 20 = 14. Winning balls = 6 + 14 = 20 out of total 35. Probability = 20/35 = 4/7.
Q43·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
A bookseller sold 'a' number of Geography textbooks at the rate of Rs. x per book, 'a + 2' number of History textbooks at the rate of Rs. (x + 2) per book and 'a - 2' number of Mathematics textbooks at the rate of Rs. (x - 2) per book. What is his total sale in Rs.?
Q44·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If Pen < Pencil, Pencil < Book and Book > Cap, then which one of the following is always true?
Correct: B
Pen < Pencil and Pencil < Book together give Pen < Book by transitivity, whatever the relation between Book and Cap. Hence Pen < Book is always true.
Q45·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000, how many numbers occur in which the digit at hundred's place is greater than the digit at ten's place, and the digit at ten's place is greater than the digit at unit's place?
Correct: C
85. Count three-digit numbers from 700 to 999 with hundreds digit greater than tens digit greater than units digit. For hundreds digit 7: choose two smaller digits from 0-6, giving C(7,2)=21. For 8: C(8,2)=28. For 9: C(9,2)=36. Total = 21+28+36 = 85. The number 1000 is not a three-digit number, so it is excluded.
Q46·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
A solid cube of 3 cm side, painted on all its faces, is cut up into small cubes of 1 cm side. How many of the small cubes will have exactly two painted faces?
Correct: A
12. A 3 x 3 x 3 painted cube has small cubes with exactly two painted faces along the edges but not at the corners. Each of the 12 edges contributes (3-2)=1 such cube. Total = 12.
Q47·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
A number consists of three digits of which the middle one is zero and their sum is 4. If the number formed by interchanging the first and last digits is greater than the number itself by 198, then the difference between the first and last digits is:
Correct: B
2. Let the number be 100a + b because the middle digit is zero. Given a + b = 4. Reversed number = 100b + a, and it is greater by 198: (100b+a) - (100a+b) = 198, so 99(b-a)=198 and b-a=2. Therefore the difference between first and last digits is 2.
Q48·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
Some people believe that leadership is a quality which you have at birth or not at all. This theory is false, for the art of leadership can be acquired and can indeed be taught. This discovery is made in time of war and the results achieved can surprise even the instructors. Faced with the alternatives of going left or right, every soldier soon grasps that a prompt decision either way is better than an endless discussion. A firm choice of direction has an even chance of being right while to do nothing will be almost certainly wrong. Question: The author of the passage holds the view that
Correct: B
The passage rejects the theory that leadership is inborn, stating that the art of leadership can be acquired and can indeed be taught, and that war-time training produces leaders who surprise even the instructors. The essential point is that leadership can be acquired as well as taught.
Q49·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
Today, the top environmental challenge is a combination of people and their aspirations. If the aspirations are more like the frugal ones we had after the Second World War, a lot more is possible than if we view the planet as a giant shopping mall. We need to get beyond the fascination with glitter and understand that the planet works as a biological system. Question: Which of the following is the most crucial and logical inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct: C
The passage says the top environmental challenge is people's aspirations, and that we must get beyond the fascination with glitter and treat the planet as a biological system. The message is that reducing our consumerism is very much in our own interest.
Q50·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
A diversity of natural assets will be needed to cope with climate change and ensure productive agriculture, forestry, and fisheries. For example, crop varieties are needed that perform well under drought, heat, and enhanced CO2. But the private-sector and farmer-led process of choosing crops favours crops adapted to past or current conditions, not varieties capable of producing consistently high yields in warmer, wetter, or drier conditions. Accelerated breeding programmes are needed to conserve a wider pool of genetic resources of existing crops, breeds, and their wild relatives. Relatively intact ecosystems, such as forested catchments, mangroves, wetlands, can buffer the impacts of climate change. Under a changing climate, these ecosystems are themselves at risk, and management approaches will need to be more proactive and adaptive. Connections between natural areas, such as migration corridors, may be needed to facilitate species movements to keep up with the change in climate. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made 1. Diversification of livelihoods acts as a coping strategy for climate change. 2. Adoption of monocropping practice leads to the extinction of plant varieties and their wild relatives. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: C
Assumption 1 is valid: the passage calls for a diversity of natural assets - crop varieties, breeds, their wild relatives - so that agriculture, forestry and fisheries can cope with climate change, which is diversification as a coping strategy. Assumption 2 is valid: the passage says the private-sector choice of crops favours homogeneity and that wider gene pools of existing crops and wild relatives need conserving, implying monocropping erodes varieties.
Q51·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
A diversity of natural assets will be needed to cope with climate change and ensure productive agriculture, forestry, and fisheries. For example, crop varieties are needed that perform well under drought, heat, and enhanced CO2. But the private-sector and farmer-led process of choosing crops favours crops adapted to past or current conditions, not varieties capable of producing consistently high yields in warmer, wetter, or drier conditions. Accelerated breeding programmes are needed to conserve a wider pool of genetic resources of existing crops, breeds, and their wild relatives. Relatively intact ecosystems, such as forested catchments, mangroves, wetlands, can buffer the impacts of climate change. Under a changing climate, these ecosystems are themselves at risk, and management approaches will need to be more proactive and adaptive. Connections between natural areas, such as migration corridors, may be needed to facilitate species movements to keep up with the change in climate. Question: With reference to the above passage, which of the following would assist us in coping with the climate change? 1. Conservation of natural water sources 2. Conservation of wider gene pool 3. Existing crop management practices 4. Migration corridors Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: B
The passage identifies conservation of wider gene pools, intact ecosystems such as forested catchments and wetlands that buffer climate impacts (which requires conserving natural water sources), and migration corridors for species movement as the tools to cope with climate change. Existing crop management practices are not listed - in fact the passage says they favour homogeneity. Hence 1, 2 and 4.
Q52·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
'Desertification' is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramatic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a variety of ways: accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid 'green revolution' areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline, a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice/wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in hydrology and related soil and nutrient losses. The consequences of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The already high rates for the tropics are increasing at an alarming rate, e.g., through the major river systems--Ganga and Brahmaputra in the Indian context, due to deforestation and land management practices subsequent to forest clearing. In the mountain context, the declining moisture retention of the mountain soils, drying up of the underground springs and smaller rivers in the Himalayan region could be attributed to drastic changes in the forest cover. An indirect consequence is drastic alteration in the upland-lowland interaction, mediated through water. The current concern of the tea planter of Assam is about the damage to tea plantations due to frequent inundation along the flood-plains of Brahmaputra, and the damage to tea plantation and the consequent loss in tea productivity is due to rising level of the river bottom because of siltation and the changing course of the river system. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality, and the declining biological productivity of the ecosystem. Question: With reference to 'desertification', as described in the passage, the following assumptions have been made 1. Desertification is a phenomenon in tropical areas only. 2. Deforestation invariably leads to floods and desertification. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: D
Assumption 1 is wrong: the passage says desertification is often linked to arid and semi-arid zones but its impact in the humid tropics can be most dramatic. Assumption 2 is wrong: the passage does not say deforestation invariably leads to floods and desertification. Hence neither is valid.
Q53·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
'Desertification' is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramatic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a variety of ways: accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid 'green revolution' areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline, a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice/wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in hydrology and related soil and nutrient losses. The consequences of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The already high rates for the tropics are increasing at an alarming rate, e.g., through the major river systems--Ganga and Brahmaputra in the Indian context, due to deforestation and land management practices subsequent to forest clearing. In the mountain context, the declining moisture retention of the mountain soils, drying up of the underground springs and smaller rivers in the Himalayan region could be attributed to drastic changes in the forest cover. An indirect consequence is drastic alteration in the upland-lowland interaction, mediated through water. The current concern of the tea planter of Assam is about the damage to tea plantations due to frequent inundation along the flood-plains of Brahmaputra, and the damage to tea plantation and the consequent loss in tea productivity is due to rising level of the river bottom because of siltation and the changing course of the river system. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality, and the declining biological productivity of the ecosystem. Question: Which of the following is/are the correct inference/ inferences that can be made from the passage? 1. Deforestation can cause changes in the course of rivers. 2. Salinization of land takes place due to human activities only. 3. Intense monoculture practice in plains is a major reason for desertification in Tropical Asia, Africa and South America. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: A
The passage cites the Assam tea plantations damaged by inundation because of siltation and the changing course of the Brahmaputra - an upland-lowland interaction mediated through water - implying deforestation in the uplands can change river courses. It does not claim salinization is only human-caused or that monoculture is the major reason for desertification in the tropics.
Q54·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
'Desertification' is a term used to explain a process of decline in the biological productivity of an ecosystem, leading to total loss of productivity. While this phenomenon is often linked to arid, semi-arid and sub-humid ecosystems, even in the humid tropics, the impact could be most dramatic. Impoverishment of human-impacted terrestrial ecosystems may exhibit itself in a variety of ways: accelerated erosion as in the mountain regions of the country, salinization of land as in the semi-arid and arid 'green revolution' areas of the country, e.g., Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh, and site quality decline, a common phenomenon due to general decline in tree cover and monotonous monoculture of rice/wheat across the Indian plains. A major consequence of deforestation is that it relates to adverse alterations in hydrology and related soil and nutrient losses. The consequences of deforestation invariably arise out of site degradation through erosive losses. Tropical Asia, Africa and South America have the highest levels of erosion. The already high rates for the tropics are increasing at an alarming rate, e.g., through the major river systems--Ganga and Brahmaputra in the Indian context, due to deforestation and land management practices subsequent to forest clearing. In the mountain context, the declining moisture retention of the mountain soils, drying up of the underground springs and smaller rivers in the Himalayan region could be attributed to drastic changes in the forest cover. An indirect consequence is drastic alteration in the upland-lowland interaction, mediated through water. The current concern of the tea planter of Assam is about the damage to tea plantations due to frequent inundation along the flood-plains of Brahmaputra, and the damage to tea plantation and the consequent loss in tea productivity is due to rising level of the river bottom because of siltation and the changing course of the river system. The ultimate consequences of site desertification are soil degradation, alteration in available water and its quality, and the declining biological productivity of the ecosystem. Question: According to the passage, which of the following are the consequences of decline in forest cover? 1. Loss of topsoil 2. Loss of smaller rivers 3. Adverse effect on agricultural production 4. Declining of groundwater Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
The passage describes accelerated erosion, loss of topsoil, declining groundwater and the damage to tea plantations from siltation and changing river courses as consequences of declining forest cover - all four statements follow: loss of topsoil, loss of smaller rivers, adverse effect on agricultural production and declining groundwater.
Q55·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
The plan of an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F is as follows: Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies on the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F's office is further down the corridor than A's, but on the same side. The plan of an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F is as follows: Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies on the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F's office is further down the corridor than A's, but on the same side. Who is/are F's immediate neighbour/neighbours?
Correct: A
On the left side of the corridor, from the entrance down, the offices are D, A, F; on the right side they are C, E, B (C faces D, E is not at a corner and does not face F, and F is further down than A). F occupies the far corner office, so his only immediate neighbour is A.
Q56·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
The plan of an office block for six officers A, B, C, D, E and F is as follows: Both B and C occupy offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters the office block) and A occupies on the left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F's office is further down the corridor than A's, but on the same side. If E sits in his office and faces the corridor, whose office is to his left?
Correct: C
Arrange the offices: C faces D, so C and D are at the same depth on opposite sides; E does not have a corner office and E and F do not face each other. The consistent arrangement, from the entrance down, is left side D, A, F and right side C, E, B. E sits on the right side facing the corridor, and the office to his left, towards the entrance, is C's. Hence the answer is C.
Q57·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
X and Y are natural numbers other than 1, and Y is greater than X. Which of the following represents the largest number?
Correct: A
XY. Since X and Y are natural numbers greater than 1 and Y>X, the product XY is greater than X/Y and Y/X. More directly, XY is at least 2Y and therefore exceeds the fractional alternatives X/Y, Y/X and (X+Y)/XY for the given domain. Hence XY represents the largest number.
Q58·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If X is between -3 and -1, and Y is between -1 and 1, then X^2 - Y^2 is in between which of the following?
Correct: D
X lies between -3 and -1, so 1 < X^2 < 9. Y lies between -1 and 1, so 0 <= Y^2 < 1. Therefore X^2 - Y^2 lies between 0 and 9.
Q59·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If RAMON is written as 12345 and DINESH as 675849, then HAMAM will be written as
Correct: B
From RAMON = 12345: R=1, A=2, M=3, O=4, N=5. From DINESH = 675849: D=6, I=7, N=5, E=8, S=4, H=9. Hence HAMAM = H-A-M-A-M = 9-2-3-2-3 = 92323.
Q60·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If LSJXVC is the code for MUMBAI, the code for DELHI is:
Correct: A
MUMBAI is coded as LSJXVC by subtracting 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 successively: M-1=L, U-2=S, M-3=J, B-4=X, A-5=V, I-6=C. Applying the same rule to DELHI: D-1=C, E-2=C, L-3=I, H-4=D, I-5=D, giving CCIDD.
Q61·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
It is no longer enough for us to talk about providing for universal access to education. Making available schooling facilities is an essential prerequisite, but is insufficient to ensure that all children attend school and participate in the learning process. The school may be there, but children may not attend or they may drop out after a few months. Through school and social mapping, we must address the entire gamut of social, economic, cultural and indeed linguistic and pedagogic issues, factors that prevent children from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups, as also girls, from regularly attending and completing elementary education. The focus must be on the poorest and most vulnerable since these groups are the most disempowered and at the greatest risk of violation or denial of their right to education. The right to education goes beyond free and compulsory education to include quality education for all. Quality is an integral part of the right to education. If the education process lacks quality, children are being denied their right. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act lays down that the curriculum should provide for learning through activities, exploration and discovery. This places an obligation on us to change our perception of children as passive receivers of knowledge, and to move beyond the convention of using textbooks as the basis of examinations. The teaching-learning process must become stress-free; and a massive programme for curricular reform should be initiated to provide for a child-friendly learning system, that is more relevant and empowering. Teacher accountability systems and processes must ensure that children are learning, and that their right to learn in a child-friendly environment is not violated. Testing and assessment systems must be reexamined and redesigned to ensure that these do not force children to struggle between school and tuition centres, and bypass childhood. Question: What is the essential message in this passage?
Correct: C
The passage argues that providing schooling facilities is not enough - quality matters. It demands stress-free learning, child-friendly curricula, teacher accountability and redesigned assessment. The essential message is that the Right to Free and Compulsory Education should include quality education for all.
Q62·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
It is no longer enough for us to talk about providing for universal access to education. Making available schooling facilities is an essential prerequisite, but is insufficient to ensure that all children attend school and participate in the learning process. The school may be there, but children may not attend or they may drop out after a few months. Through school and social mapping, we must address the entire gamut of social, economic, cultural and indeed linguistic and pedagogic issues, factors that prevent children from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups, as also girls, from regularly attending and completing elementary education. The focus must be on the poorest and most vulnerable since these groups are the most disempowered and at the greatest risk of violation or denial of their right to education. The right to education goes beyond free and compulsory education to include quality education for all. Quality is an integral part of the right to education. If the education process lacks quality, children are being denied their right. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act lays down that the curriculum should provide for learning through activities, exploration and discovery. This places an obligation on us to change our perception of children as passive receivers of knowledge, and to move beyond the convention of using textbooks as the basis of examinations. The teaching-learning process must become stress-free; and a massive programme for curricular reform should be initiated to provide for a child-friendly learning system, that is more relevant and empowering. Teacher accountability systems and processes must ensure that children are learning, and that their right to learn in a child-friendly environment is not violated. Testing and assessment systems must be reexamined and redesigned to ensure that these do not force children to struggle between school and tuition centres, and bypass childhood. Question: According to the passage, which one of the following is critical in bringing quality in education?
Correct: D
The passage criticizes treating children as passive receivers of knowledge and calls for learning through activities, exploration and discovery, alongside curricular reform and stress-free teaching. The critical element in bringing quality in education is inculcating learning through activities and discovery.
Q63·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
It is no longer enough for us to talk about providing for universal access to education. Making available schooling facilities is an essential prerequisite, but is insufficient to ensure that all children attend school and participate in the learning process. The school may be there, but children may not attend or they may drop out after a few months. Through school and social mapping, we must address the entire gamut of social, economic, cultural and indeed linguistic and pedagogic issues, factors that prevent children from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups, as also girls, from regularly attending and completing elementary education. The focus must be on the poorest and most vulnerable since these groups are the most disempowered and at the greatest risk of violation or denial of their right to education. The right to education goes beyond free and compulsory education to include quality education for all. Quality is an integral part of the right to education. If the education process lacks quality, children are being denied their right. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act lays down that the curriculum should provide for learning through activities, exploration and discovery. This places an obligation on us to change our perception of children as passive receivers of knowledge, and to move beyond the convention of using textbooks as the basis of examinations. The teaching-learning process must become stress-free; and a massive programme for curricular reform should be initiated to provide for a child-friendly learning system, that is more relevant and empowering. Teacher accountability systems and processes must ensure that children are learning, and that their right to learn in a child-friendly environment is not violated. Testing and assessment systems must be reexamined and redesigned to ensure that these do not force children to struggle between school and tuition centres, and bypass childhood. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. The Right to Education guarantees teachers' accountability for the learning process of children. 2. The Right to Education guarantees 100% enrolment of children in the schools. 3. The Right to Education intends to take full advantage of demographic dividend. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: A
Assumption 1 is valid: the passage says teacher accountability systems and processes must ensure that children are learning, as part of the right to learn in a child-friendly environment. Assumptions 2 and 3 are not supported - the passage nowhere guarantees 100 per cent enrolment or ties the Right to Education to the demographic dividend.
Q64·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
It is no longer enough for us to talk about providing for universal access to education. Making available schooling facilities is an essential prerequisite, but is insufficient to ensure that all children attend school and participate in the learning process. The school may be there, but children may not attend or they may drop out after a few months. Through school and social mapping, we must address the entire gamut of social, economic, cultural and indeed linguistic and pedagogic issues, factors that prevent children from weaker sections and disadvantaged groups, as also girls, from regularly attending and completing elementary education. The focus must be on the poorest and most vulnerable since these groups are the most disempowered and at the greatest risk of violation or denial of their right to education. The right to education goes beyond free and compulsory education to include quality education for all. Quality is an integral part of the right to education. If the education process lacks quality, children are being denied their right. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act lays down that the curriculum should provide for learning through activities, exploration and discovery. This places an obligation on us to change our perception of children as passive receivers of knowledge, and to move beyond the convention of using textbooks as the basis of examinations. The teaching-learning process must become stress-free; and a massive programme for curricular reform should be initiated to provide for a child-friendly learning system, that is more relevant and empowering. Teacher accountability systems and processes must ensure that children are learning, and that their right to learn in a child-friendly environment is not violated. Testing and assessment systems must be reexamined and redesigned to ensure that these do not force children to struggle between school and tuition centres, and bypass childhood. Question: According to the passage, which of the following is/are of paramount importance under the Right to Education? 1. Sending of children to school by all parents 2. Provision of adequate physical infrastructure in schools 3. Curricular reforms for developing child-friendly learning system Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
The passage says schooling facilities alone are insufficient and that a massive programme of curricular reform should be initiated to provide a child-friendly learning system. Among the options, only curricular reforms for developing a child-friendly learning system are of paramount importance under the Right to Education.
Q65·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Consider a cube whose six faces contain the symbols: a single dot, two dots, three dots, four dots, a cross and a line. Two views of this cube are given. Consider a cube whose six faces contain the symbols: a single dot, two dots, three dots, four dots, a cross and a line. Two views of this cube are given. What is the symbol on the face opposite to that containing the cross?
Correct: C
In the two views the cross is adjacent to the single dot, the two dots, the three dots and the four dots. The only remaining face is the line, which must therefore be opposite the cross.
Q66·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Consider a cube whose six faces contain the symbols: a single dot, two dots, three dots, four dots, a cross and a line. Two views of this cube are given. Consider a cube whose six faces contain the symbols: a single dot, two dots, three dots, four dots, a cross and a line. Two views of this cube are given. What is the symbol on the face opposite to that containing two dots?
Correct: C
In the two views the two-dot face is adjacent to the single dot, the three dots, the cross and the line. The only remaining face is the four dots, which must be opposite the two-dot face.
Q67·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Consider a cube whose six faces contain the symbols: a single dot, two dots, three dots, four dots, a cross and a line. Two views of this cube are given. Consider a cube whose six faces contain the symbols: a single dot, two dots, three dots, four dots, a cross and a line. Two views of this cube are given. What is the symbol on the face opposite to that containing a single dot?
Correct: B
In the two views the single dot is adjacent to the two dots, the four dots, the cross and the line. The only remaining face is the three dots, which must be opposite the single dot.
Q68·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Graph context: the bar chart shows imports of three types of steel over six months of a year (in thousand tonnes): sheet steel 40, 37, 36, 36, 36, 34; scrap steel 32, 34, 32 in the first three months; coil steel 30, 33, 31 in the first three months. The figures in brackets indicate the average cost per ton over the six-month period (sheet steel: $256). Graph context: the bar chart shows imports of three types of steel over six months of a year (in thousand tonnes): sheet steel 40, 37, 36, 36, 36, 34; scrap steel 32, 34, 32 in the first three months; coil steel 30, 33, 31 in the first three months. The figures in brackets indicate the average cost per ton over the six-month period (sheet steel: $256). What was the approximate ratio of sheet steel and scrap steel imports in the first three months of the year?
Correct: B
From the chart, sheet steel imports in the first three months total 40 + 37 + 36 = 113 thousand tonnes, while scrap steel imports total 32 + 34 + 32 = 98 thousand tonnes. The ratio 113 : 98 is approximately 1.2 : 1.
Q69·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Graph context: the bar chart shows imports of three types of steel over six months of a year (in thousand tonnes): sheet steel 40, 37, 36, 36, 36, 34; scrap steel 32, 34, 32 in the first three months; coil steel 30, 33, 31 in the first three months. The figures in brackets indicate the average cost per ton over the six-month period (sheet steel: $256). Graph context: the bar chart shows imports of three types of steel over six months of a year (in thousand tonnes): sheet steel 40, 37, 36, 36, 36, 34; scrap steel 32, 34, 32 in the first three months; coil steel 30, 33, 31 in the first three months. The figures in brackets indicate the average cost per ton over the six-month period (sheet steel: $256). What was the approximate total value (in $) of sheet steel imported over the six months period?
Correct: C
Sheet steel imports over the six months total 40 + 37 + 36 + 36 + 36 + 34 = 217 thousand tonnes. At the average cost of $256 per tonne, the total value is 217 x 256 = $55,552 thousand, approximately $55,550 thousand.
Q70·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Graph context: the bar chart shows imports of three types of steel over six months of a year (in thousand tonnes): sheet steel 40, 37, 36, 36, 36, 34; scrap steel 32, 34, 32 in the first three months; coil steel 30, 33, 31 in the first three months. The figures in brackets indicate the average cost per ton over the six-month period (sheet steel: $256). Graph context: the bar chart shows imports of three types of steel over six months of a year (in thousand tonnes): sheet steel 40, 37, 36, 36, 36, 34; scrap steel 32, 34, 32 in the first three months; coil steel 30, 33, 31 in the first three months. The figures in brackets indicate the average cost per ton over the six-month period (sheet steel: $256). By how much (measured in thousands of tons) did the import of sheet steel exceed the import of coil steel in the first three months of the year?
Correct: C
In the first three months, sheet steel imports total 113 thousand tonnes while coil steel imports total 30 + 33 + 31 = 94 thousand tonnes. Sheet steel therefore exceeds coil steel by 113 - 94 = 19 thousand tonnes.
Q71·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
Though I have discarded much of past tradition and custom, and am anxious that India should rid herself of all shackles that bind and contain her and divide her people, and suppress vast numbers of them, and prevent the free development of the body and the spirit; though I seek all this, yet I do not wish to cut myself off from that past completely. I am proud of that great inheritance that has been, and is, ours, and am conscious that I too, like all of us, am a link in that unbroken chain which goes back to the dawn of history in the immemorial past of India. Question: The author wants India to rid herself of certain past bonds because
Correct: D
The passage (Jawaharlal Nehru) says he wishes India to rid herself of the shackles that bind and contain her, divide her people and prevent the free development of the body and the spirit - yet he is proud of his past inheritance. Asked why certain shackles must go, the answer is that they obstruct her physical and spiritual growth.
Q72·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
I am a scientist, privileged to be somebody who tries to understand nature using the tools of science. But it is also clear that there are some really important questions that science cannot really answer, such as: Why is there something instead of nothing? Why are we here? In those domains, I have found that faith provides a better path to answers. I find it oddly anachronistic that in today's culture there seems to be a widespread presumption that scientific and spiritual views are incompatible. Question: Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct: B
The author, a scientist, says science cannot answer questions like why there is something instead of nothing, and that in those domains faith provides a better path to answers. The message is that science and faith can be mutually complementary if their proper domains are understood.
Q73·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
Many pathogens that cause foodborne illnesses are unknown. Food contamination can occur at any stage from farm to plate. Since most cases of food poisoning go unreported, the true extent of global foodborne illnesses is unknown. Improvements in international monitoring have led to greater public awareness, yet the rapid globalization of food production increases consumers' vulnerability by making food harder to regulate and trace. "We have the world on our plates", says an official of WHO. Question: Which of the following is the most logical corollary to the above passage?
Correct: A
The passage says the rapid globalization of food production increases consumers' vulnerability by spreading contamination across borders. The logical corollary is that with more options for food come more risks; it does not blame food processing for all illnesses or demand depending only on local food.
Q74·CSAT·2018·Reading Comprehension
Global population was around 1.6 billion in 1990 - today it is around 7.2 billion and growing. Recent estimates on population growth predict a global population of 9.6 billion in 2050 and 10.9 billion in 2100. Unlike Europe and North America, where only three to four per cent of population is engaged in agriculture, around 47 per cent of India's population is dependent upon agriculture. Even if India continues to do well in the service sector and the manufacturing sector picks up, it is expected that around 2030 when India overtakes China as the world's most populous country, nearly 42 per cent of India's population will still be predominantly dependent on agriculture. Question: Which of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct: A
The passage contrasts Europe and North America, where 3-4 per cent of the population is in agriculture, with India, where around 47 per cent depends on agriculture, and notes India's growing population. The critical inference is that the prosperity of the agriculture sector is of critical importance to India.
Q75·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
A train 200 metres long is moving at the rate of 40 kmph. In how many seconds will it cross a man standing near the railway line?
Correct: D
18. Convert 40 km/hr to metres per second: 40 x 1000/3600 = 100/9 m/s. Time to cross a man = train length/speed = 200 / (100/9) = 18 seconds.
Q76·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
The figure drawn below gives the velocity graphs of two vehicles A and B. The straight line OKP represents the velocity of vehicle A at any instant, whereas the horizontal straight line CKD represents the velocity of vehicle B at any instant. In the figure, D is the point where perpendicular from P meets the horizontal line CKD, such that PD = 1/2 LD. What is the ratio between the distances covered by vehicles A and B in the time interval OL?
Correct: C
3:4. Distance covered equals area under the velocity-time graph. For vehicle B, area is the rectangle OL x LD. For vehicle A, area is triangle OLP = 1/2 x OL x PL. Given PD = 1/2 LD, PL = LD + PD = 3/2 LD. So A's area = 1/2 x OL x 3/2 LD = 3/4(OL x LD). Therefore distance ratio A:B = 3:4.
Q77·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
How many diagonals can be drawn by joining the vertices of an octagon?
Correct: A
An octagon has 8 vertices. Lines joining all pairs of vertices number C(8,2) = 28, of which 8 are the sides. Hence the number of diagonals is 28 - 8 = 20.
Q78·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following pattern of numbers: 8, 10, 15, 13; 6, 5, 7, 4; 4, 6, 8, 8; resulting row 6, 11, 16,?. What is the number at? in the above pattern?
Correct: A
17. In each column of the source pattern, the bottom number equals the top number minus the middle number plus the third-row number. Check: 8-6+4=6, 10-5+6=11, and 15-7+8=16. Therefore the missing value is 13-4+8=17.
Q79·CSAT·2018·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Consider the following sum: dot + 1 dot + 2 dot + dot 3 + dot 1 = 21 dot. In the above sum, dot stands for
Correct: D
Let the dot stand for digit d. The five numbers are d, 10+d, 20+d, 10d+3 and 10d+1; their sum is 23d + 34. This must equal the three-digit number 21d, i.e., 210 + d. So 23d + 34 = 210 + d, giving 22d = 176 and d = 8.
Q80·CSAT·2018·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider a three-dimensional figure formed like a transparent double pyramid/octahedral solid: a top apex and bottom apex are joined to the visible left, right and central vertices; both solid and dashed internal edges are shown, creating triangular faces and internal triangular outlines. How many triangles does the figure have?
Correct: B
The solid edges form the 8 triangular faces of the double pyramid. The internal dashed edges create 12 more triangular outlines within the middle section. The figure therefore contains 8 + 12 = 20 triangles.