79 CSAT questions from the official UPSC 2022 Prelims paper, each with the verified answer key and an explanation.
1–79 of 79
Q1·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
The average weight of A, B, C is 40 kg, the average weight of B, D, E is 42 kg and the weight of F is equal to that of B. What is the average weight of A, B, C, D, E and F?
Correct: C
41 kg. Average of A, B, C is 40, so A+B+C = 120. Average of B, D, E is 42, so B+D+E = 126. Since F = B, total A+B+C+D+E+F equals (A+B+C) + (B+D+E) = 120 + 126 = 246. Average of six persons = 246/6 = 41 kg.
Q2·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the number of numbers of the form 0.XY, where X and Y are distinct non-zero digits?
Correct: A
72. X can be any of the 9 non-zero digits. Y must be non-zero and different from X, so it has 8 choices. Total numbers = 9 x 8 = 72.
Q3·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
The sum of three consecutive integers is equal to their product. How many such possibilities are there?
Correct: C
Let the three consecutive integers be n-1, n, n+1. Then sum = 3n and product = n(n^2 - 1). Equating, 3n = n(n^2 - 1), i.e., n(n^2 - 4) = 0, giving n = 0, 2, -2. The corresponding triples are (-1, 0, 1), (1, 2, 3) and (-3, -2, -1). Hence there are only three possibilities.
Q4·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
There are 9 cups placed on a table arranged in equal number of rows and columns out of which 6 cups contain coffee and 3 cups contain tea. In how many ways can they be arranged so that each row should contain at least one cup of coffee?
Correct: D
81. Nine cups in equal rows and columns means a 3 x 3 arrangement. There are 6 coffee cups and 3 tea cups. The condition that every row has at least one coffee is automatically satisfied unless all three tea cups occupy the same row. Total placements of 3 tea cups among 9 positions = 9C3 = 84. Bad placements = choosing one full row for tea = 3. Valid arrangements = 84 - 3 = 81.
Q5·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
One non-zero digit, one vowel and one consonant from English alphabet (in capital) are to be used in forming passwords, such that each password has to start with a vowel and end with a consonant. How many such passwords can be generated?
Correct: C
The password starts with a vowel (5 choices), ends with a consonant (21 choices) and has a non-zero digit in the middle (9 choices). Total passwords = 5 x 21 x 9 = 945.
Q6·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the value of X in the sequence 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X?
Correct: B
252. Write the terms as n^2(n+1): 1^2 x 2 = 2, 2^2 x 3 = 12, 3^2 x 4 = 36, 4^2 x 5 = 80, and 5^2 x 6 = 150. The next term is 6^2 x 7 = 252.
Q7·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
If 15 14 13... 3 2 1 = 3^m n where m and n are positive integers, then what is the maximum value of m?
Correct: B
6. The expression represents 15!. The maximum power of 3 in 15! is floor(15/3) + floor(15/9) = 5 + 1 = 6. Hence the maximum value of m is 6.
Q8·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
How best can the problems of floods and droughts be addressed so that the losses are minimal and the system becomes resilient? In this context, one important point that needs to be noted is that India gets 'too much' water (about 75% of annual precipitation) during 120 days (June to September) and 'too little' for the remaining 245 days. This skewed water availability has to be managed and regulated for its consumption throughout the year. Which one of the following best reflects the practical, rational and lasting solution?
Correct: D
The passage notes that India receives most of its water in 120 days and far too little in the remaining 245, and that this skewed availability must be managed through the year. The practical, rational and lasting solution is buffer stocking of water through dams and recharging aquifers.
Q9·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
To encourage research is one of the functions of a university. Contemporary universities have encouraged research, not only in those cases where research is necessary, but on all sorts of entirely unprofitable subjects as well. Scientific research is probably never completely valueless. However silly and insignificant it may seem, however mechanical and unintelligent the labours of the researchers, there is always a chance that the results may be of value to the investigator of talent, who can use the facts collected for him by uninspired but industrious researchers as the basis of some fruitful generalization. But where research is not original, but consists in the mere rearrangement of existing materials, where its object is not scientific but literary or historical, then there is a risk of the whole business becoming merely futile. Question: According to the author
Correct: C
The author says that however silly, insignificant or mechanical the labours of researchers, there is always a chance that the results may be of value to an investigator of talent, who can use the facts as the basis of a fruitful generalization. Hence any research result can be of value to an intelligent investigator.
Q10·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
To encourage research is one of the functions of a university. Contemporary universities have encouraged research, not only in those cases where research is necessary, but on all sorts of entirely unprofitable subjects as well. Scientific research is probably never completely valueless. However silly and insignificant it may seem, however mechanical and unintelligent the labours of the researchers, there is always a chance that the results may be of value to the investigator of talent, who can use the facts collected for him by uninspired but industrious researchers as the basis of some fruitful generalization. But where research is not original, but consists in the mere rearrangement of existing materials, where its object is not scientific but literary or historical, then there is a risk of the whole business becoming merely futile. Question: The author's assumption about scientific research is that
Correct: C
The author says scientific research is probably never completely valueless - however silly or mechanical, the results may serve a talented investigator. His assumption is that scientific research is never without some value.
Q11·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
A pie chart gives the expenditure on five different items A, B, C, D and E in a household. If B, C, D and E correspond to 90, 50, 45 and 75 respectively, then what is the percentage of expenditure on item A?
Correct: D
250/9. In a pie chart, the full circle is 360 degrees. The given sectors B, C, D and E add up to 90 + 50 + 45 + 75 = 260 degrees. So A = 360 - 260 = 100 degrees. Percentage share of A = 100/360 x 100 = 250/9 per cent.
Q12·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
There are two containers X and Y. X contains 100 ml of milk and Y contains 100 ml of water. 20 ml of milk from X is transferred to Y. After mixing well, 20 ml of the mixture in Y is transferred back to X. If m denotes the proportion of milk in X and n denotes the proportion of water in Y, then which one of the following is correct?
Correct: A
After 20 ml of milk moves to Y, Y has 120 ml with milk fraction 1/6. Transferring 20 ml of the mixture back moves 20/6 = 10/3 ml of milk to X, so X ends with 80 + 10/3 = 250/3 ml milk out of 100 ml: m = 5/6. Y retains 100 - 50/3 = 250/3 ml water out of 100 ml: n = 5/6. Hence m = n.
Q13·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Consider the following statements 1. Between 3:16 p.m. and 3:17 p.m., both hour hand and minute hand coincide. 2. Between 4:58 p.m. and 4:59 p.m., both minute hand and second hand coincide. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct: C
Both 1 and 2. For statement 1, at 3:00 the hour and minute hands are 90 degrees apart. The minute hand gains 5.5 degrees per minute, so overlap occurs after 90/5.5 = 16.36 minutes, i.e. between 3:16 and 3:17. For statement 2, at 4:58 the minute hand is at 348 degrees and the second hand is at 0 degrees, a 12-degree gap. The second hand gains on the minute hand at 354 degrees per minute, so it catches up just after 4:58. Both statements are correct.
Q14·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following statements in respect of two natural numbers p and q such that p is a prime number and q is a composite number 1. p x q can be an odd number. 2. q/p can be a prime number. 3. p + q can be a prime number. Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct: D
1, 2 and 3. Statement 1: p x q can be odd, e.g. p=3 and q=9. Statement 2: q/p can be prime, e.g. q=6 and p=2 gives 3. Statement 3: p+q can be prime, e.g. p=2 and q=9 gives 11. Hence all three statements are correct.
Q15·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
Let p be a two-digit number and q be the number consisting of same digits written in reverse order. If pxq=2430, then what is the difference between p and q?
Correct: D
9. Let p be a two-digit number and q its reverse. Testing factor pairs around 2430, the pair 45 and 54 satisfies 45 x 54 = 2430. The reverse pair also gives the same product. Difference = 54 - 45 = 9.
Q16·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the smallest number greater than 1000 that when divided by any one of the numbers 6, 9, 12, 15, 18 leaves a remainder of 3?
Correct: C
1083. If the number leaves remainder 3 when divided by 6, 9, 12, 15 and 18, then N-3 is divisible by their LCM. lcm(6,9,12,15,18)=180. The smallest number greater than 1000 of the form 180k+3 is 1083.
Q17·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote and there were no invalid votes. There was no NOTA (None of the above) option. X got 56% of the votes cast and won by 1440 votes. What is the total number of voters in the voters list?
Correct: A
15000. X got 56% of votes cast and Y got 44%, so X's victory margin = 12% of votes cast. Given margin = 1440, votes cast = 1440/0.12 = 12000. Since 80% of voters cast votes, total voters = 12000/0.80 = 15000.
Q18·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
"The social order is a sacred right which is the basis of all other rights. Nevertheless, this right does not come from nature, and must therefore be founded on conventions." Question: With reference to the above passage, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Conventions are the sources of rights of man. 2. Rights of man can be exercised only when there is a social order. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
The passage says the social order is the basis of all other rights and is founded on conventions, not nature. Both statements follow: conventions are the sources of the rights of man (1), and rights can be exercised only when there is a social order (2).
Q19·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
The majority of people who fail to accumulate money sufficient for their needs, are generally, easily influenced by the opinions of others. They permit the newspapers and the gossiping neighbours to do their thinking for them. Opinions are the cheapest commodities on the earth. Everyone has a flock of opinions ready to be wished upon by anyone who will accept them. If you are influenced by opinions when you reach decisions, you will not succeed in any undertaking. Question: What is the main idea of the passage?
Correct: A
The passage says people who fail to accumulate money are generally easily influenced by others' opinions - they let newspapers and gossiping neighbours think for them. The message is that people should not be influenced by the opinions of others.
Q20·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
The majority of people who fail to accumulate money sufficient for their needs, are generally, easily influenced by the opinions of others. They permit the newspapers and the gossiping neighbours to do their thinking for them. Opinions are the cheapest commodities on the earth. Everyone has a flock of opinions ready to be wished upon by anyone who will accept them. If you are influenced by opinions when you reach decisions, you will not succeed in any undertaking. Question: Which one of the following is implied by the passage?
Correct: C
The passage speaks of the majority of people who fail to accumulate money sufficient for their needs - it does not claim most people fail, only that there are people who fail to accumulate money for their needs.
Q21·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
When 70% of a number x is added to another number y, the sum becomes 165% of the value of y. When 60% of the number x is added to another number z, then the sum becomes 165% of the value of z. Which one of the following is correct?
Correct: A
The correct order is z < x < y. From 70% of x added to y becoming 165% of y: 0.70x + y = 1.65y, so 0.70x = 0.65y and y = 14x/13. From 60% of x added to z becoming 165% of z: 0.60x + z = 1.65z, so 0.60x = 0.65z and z = 12x/13. Therefore z < x < y.
Q22·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following statements in respect of a rectangular sheet of length 20 cm and breadth 8 cm 1. It is possible to cut the sheet exactly into 4 square sheets. 2. It is possible to cut the sheet into 10 triangular sheets of equal area. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct: C
Both 1 and 2. A 20 cm x 8 cm rectangle can be cut into two 8 cm x 8 cm squares and the remaining 4 cm x 8 cm strip can be cut into two 4 cm x 4 cm squares, giving exactly 4 square sheets. It can also be divided into 10 triangles of equal area by first dividing it into 10 equal-area rectangles and cutting each appropriately, or by using equal bases and common height. Hence both statements are possible.
Q23·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the remainder when 91 92 93 94 9596979899 is divided by 1261?
Correct: D
0. Factor 1261 as 13 x 97. The product 91 x 92 x 93 x 94 x 95 x 96 x 97 x 98 x 99 contains 97 directly. It also contains 91 = 7 x 13, so it has a factor 13. Therefore the product is divisible by both 13 and 97, and hence by 1261. The remainder is 0.
Q24·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
24 men and 12 women can do a piece of work in 30 days. In how many days can 12 men and 24 women do the same piece of work?
Correct: D
Data is inadequate to draw any conclusion. Let one man's daily work rate be m and one woman's daily work rate be w. Given 24m + 12w completes the work in 30 days. The asked group has rate 12m + 24w. Without knowing the relation between m and w, this second rate may be greater, smaller or equal to the first. Therefore the number of days cannot be determined.
Q25·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
There are eight equidistant points on a circle. How many right-angled triangles can be drawn using these points as vertices and taking the diameter as one side of the triangle?
Correct: A
Eight equidistant points form 4 diameters. For each diameter, any of the remaining 6 points forms a right angle at the circumference (angle in a semicircle). Total right-angled triangles = 4 x 6 = 24.
Q26·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits in the PIN differ by at least 2. How many maximum attempts does one need to find out the PIN with certainty?
Correct: C
10. Since digits are in decreasing order, each valid PIN corresponds to choosing 3 digits from 1 to 7 with gaps of at least 2. The valid triples are 531, 631, 731, 641, 741, 751, 642, 742, 752 and 753. Therefore maximum attempts needed = 10.
Q27·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
Let A, B and C represent distinct non-zero digits. Suppose x is the sum of all possible 3-digit numbers formed by A, B and C without repetition. Consider the following statements 1. The 4-digit least value of x is 1332. 2. The 3-digit greatest value of x is 888. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct: A
1 only. All six 3-digit numbers formed from A, B and C have digit sum contribution 222(A+B+C), because each digit appears twice in each place. Thus x = 222(A+B+C). The least distinct non-zero digit sum is 1+2+3=6, giving x=1332, so statement 1 is correct. A 3-digit value would need A+B+C <=4, impossible with three distinct non-zero digits. Therefore statement 2 is incorrect.
Q28·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
If presents bring less thrill now that we are grown up, perhaps it is because we have too much already; or perhaps it is because we have lost the fullness of the joy of giving, and with it the fullness of the joy of receiving. Children's fears are poignant, their miseries are acute, but they do not look too forward nor too far backward. Their joys are clear and complete, because they have not yet learnt always to add 'but' to every proposition. Perhaps we are too cautious, too anxious, too sceptical. Perhaps some of our cares would shrink if we thought less about them and entered with more single- minded enjoyment into the happiness that come our way. Question: The author of the passage is against
Correct: A
The passage contrasts children, whose joys are clear and complete because they do not look too far forward or backward, with grown-ups, whose thrill from presents has dimmed. The joy of receiving is dimmed by worrying too much about the past and future.
Q29·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
If presents bring less thrill now that we are grown up, perhaps it is because we have too much already; or perhaps it is because we have lost the fullness of the joy of giving, and with it the fullness of the joy of receiving. Children's fears are poignant, their miseries are acute, but they do not look too forward nor too far backward. Their joys are clear and complete, because they have not yet learnt always to add 'but' to every proposition. Perhaps we are too cautious, too anxious, too sceptical. Perhaps some of our cares would shrink if we thought less about them and entered with more single- minded enjoyment into the happiness that come our way. Question: With reference to the passage, which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct: B
The author offers two tentative explanations - perhaps we have too much already, or perhaps we have lost the fullness of the joy of giving and with it the joy of receiving. The clear point is that there can be more than one reason why adults feel less thrilled by presents.
Q30·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
In an economic organization, allowing mankind to benefit by the productivity of machines should lead to a very good life of leisure, and much leisure is apt to be tedious except to those who have intelligent activities and interests. If a leisured population is to be happy, it must be an educated population, and must be educated with a view to enjoyment as well as to the direct usefulness of technical knowledge. Question: Which of the following statements best reflects the underlying tone of the passage?
Correct: A
The passage says leisure is tedious except for those with intelligent activities, so a leisured population must be an educated one, educated for enjoyment as well as usefulness. The message is that only an educated population can best make use of the benefits of economic progress.
Q31·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
Six lectures A, B, C, D, E and F, each of one hour duration, are scheduled between 8:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. Consider the Question and two Statements given below Question: Which lecture is in the third period? Statement-1: Lecture F is preceded by A and followed by C. Statement-2: There is no lecture after lecture B. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
Both statements together are not sufficient. Statement 1 only says F is preceded by A and followed by C, so A-F-C must occur consecutively, but it can occupy several positions. Statement 2 only says B is the last lecture, which does not identify the third period. Even together, B is fixed in the sixth period, while A-F-C can be placed in periods 1-3, 2-4 or 3-5. The third period could therefore be C, F or A. Hence the question cannot be answered.
Q32·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the Question and two Statements given below Question What is the age of Manisha? Statement-1 Manisha is 24 years younger than her mother. Statement-2 5 years later, the ages of Manisha and her mother will be in the ratio 3:5. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?
Correct: C
Both statements are sufficient. Statement 1 alone gives only an age difference, not Manisha's age. Statement 2 alone gives only a future ratio, not the absolute ages. Together, if Manisha is M, mother is M+24. Five years later, (M+5):(M+29)=3:5. Solving 5M+25 = 3M+87 gives M=31. Hence both statements together are sufficient.
Q33·CSAT·2022·Logical Reasoning
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting equidistant from each other around a circular table (facing the centre of the table). Consider the Question and two Statements given below. Question: Who is sitting on the immediate left of A? Statement-1: B is sitting opposite to C and D is sitting opposite to E. Statement-2: F is sitting on the immediate left of B. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
The statements fix only the opposition pairs B-C and D-E and the pair F-B. This does not determine A's position relative to the others, so who sits on the immediate left of A cannot be answered even with both statements.
Q34·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A, B, C, D, E and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E and six times that of F. What is the minimum number of pens X should buy so that the number of pens each one gets is an even number?
Correct: C
Let F receive f pens; then A, B, C, D, E receive 6f, 3f, 2f, 3f/2 and 6f/5. For D's share (3f/2) to be even, f must be a multiple of 4; for E's share (6f/5) to be even, f must be a multiple of 10. The smallest such f is 20, giving shares 120, 60, 40, 30, 24 and 20, whose total is 294.
Q35·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove to village, arriving there when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for 25 minutes, he drove back by a different route of length 1.25 times the first route at a rate twice as fast reaching home at 16:00 hours. As compared to the clock at home, the village clock is:
Correct: D
5 minutes fast. Let onward travel time be t minutes. Return route is 1.25 times as long but speed is twice as fast, so return time = 1.25t/2 = 0.625t. Total actual time from 14:30 to 16:00 is 90 minutes, including 25 minutes' stay. Thus t + 25 + 0.625t = 90, so 1.625t = 65 and t = 40 minutes. Actual village arrival was 15:10, but village clock showed 15:15. It is 5 minutes fast.
Q36·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Five friends P, Q, X, Y and Z purchased some notebooks. The relevant information is given below: 1. Z purchased 8 notebooks more than X did. 2. P and Q together purchased 21 notebooks. 3. Q purchased 5 notebooks less than P did. 4. X and Y together purchased 28 notebooks. 5. P purchased 5 notebooks more than X did. If each notebook is priced 40, then what is the total cost of all the notebooks?
Correct: A
Let X buy x notebooks. Z = x + 8; P = x + 5; Q = P - 5 = x. P + Q = 21 gives (x + 5) + x = 21, so x = 8. X + Y = 28 gives Y = 20. Total notebooks = 13 + 8 + 8 + 20 + 16 = 65. Total cost = 65 x 40 = Rs. 2,600.
Q37·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
The demographic dividend, which has begun in India and is expected to last another few decades, is a great window of opportunity. The demographic dividend is basically a swelling in the working age population, which conversely means that the relative ratio of very young and very old will, for a while, be on the decline. From the experience of Ireland and China, we know that this can be a source of energy and an engine of economic growth. The demographic dividend tends to raise a nation's savings rate since in any nation, it is the working age population that is the main saver. And since the savings rate is an important driver of growth, this should help elevate our growth rate. However, the benefits of demographic dividend depend on the quality of the working age population. And this implies bringing back the importance of education, acquisition of skills and human capital. Question: With reference to the passage, which of the following inferences can be drawn? 1. Demographic dividend is an essential condition for a country to rapidly increase its economic growth rate. 2. Promotion of higher education is an essential condition for a country for its rapid economic growth. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
The passage says the demographic dividend can be an engine of growth but its benefits depend on the quality of the working-age population - education, skills and human capital. It is not an essential condition of rapid growth (1), and higher education is not called essential (2) - the passage presents them as enhancers, not prerequisites. Hence neither inference can be drawn.
Q38·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
Which of the following would invariably happen in a country, when the demographic dividend has begun to operate? 1. The number of illiterate people will decrease. 2. The ratio of very old and very young will decrease for a while. 3. Population growth rate will quickly stabilize. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: B
When the demographic dividend operates, the share of the working-age population rises, so the dependency ratio — the combined share of the very young and the very old — falls for a while (statement 2). Literacy does not fall automatically; it depends on schooling policy (statement 1 is not invariable). Population growth does not stabilise quickly either; demographic momentum keeps it rising for decades (statement 3 is incorrect). Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Q39·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
For two or three generations past, increasing numbers of individuals have been living as workers merely, not as human beings. An excessive amount of labour is the rule today in every circle of society, with the result that man's spiritual element cannot thrive. He finds it very difficult to spend his little leisure in serious activities. He does not want to think; or he cannot even if he wants to. He seeks not self-improvement, but entertainment which would enable him to be mentally idle and to forget his usual activities. Therefore, the so-called culture of our age is dependent more on cinema than on theatre, more on newspapers, magazines and crime stories than on serious literature. Question: Man does not seek self-improvement because he
Correct: D
The passage says man does not want to think, or cannot even if he wants to; he seeks not self-improvement but entertainment that lets him be mentally idle and forget his usual activities. Hence man does not seek self-improvement because he loves amusement and is mentally idle.
Q40·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
For two or three generations past, increasing numbers of individuals have been living as workers merely, not as human beings. An excessive amount of labour is the rule today in every circle of society, with the result that man's spiritual element cannot thrive. He finds it very difficult to spend his little leisure in serious activities. He does not want to think; or he cannot even if he wants to. He seeks not self-improvement, but entertainment which would enable him to be mentally idle and to forget his usual activities. Therefore, the so-called culture of our age is dependant more on cinema than on theatre, more on newspapers, magazines and crime stories than on serious literature. Question: The passage is based on the idea that
Correct: B
The passage says excessive labour is the rule in every circle of society, so that man's spiritual element cannot thrive and he cannot use his little leisure seriously. The central idea is that the great evil of our age is overstrain.
Q41·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Eight students A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a circular table, equidistant from each other, facing the centre of the table, not necessarily in the same order. B and D sit neither adjacent to C nor opposite to C. A sits in between E and D, and F sits in between B and H. Which one of the following is definitely correct?
Correct: D
B and D are neither adjacent to C nor opposite to C; A is between E and D; F is between B and H. Several valid circular arrangements satisfy these conditions in which B need not be between A and G, C need not be opposite G, and E need not be opposite F. Hence none of the given statements is definitely correct.
Q42·CSAT·2022·Logical Reasoning
Three Statements followed by three Conclusions are given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows/ follow from the Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts Statement-1 Some doctors are teachers. Statement-2: All teachers are engineers. Statement-3 All engineers are scientists. Conclusion-I: Some scientists are doctors. Conclusion-II: All engineers are doctors. Conclusion-III: Some engineers are doctors. Which one of the following is correct?
Correct: C
Some doctors are teachers, all teachers are engineers and all engineers are scientists, so those doctors are engineers and scientists: some scientists are doctors (I) and some engineers are doctors (III). All engineers being doctors (II) is not forced. Hence I and III follow.
Q43·CSAT·2022·Logical Reasoning
Two Statements followed by four Conclusions are given below. You have to take the Statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts. Read all the Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusions logically follows/ follow from the Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts Statement-1 All pens are books. Statement-2 No chair is a pen. Conclusion-I All chairs are books. Conclusion-II Some chairs are pens. Conclusion-III: All books are chairs. Conclusion-IV: No chair is a book. Which one of the following is correct?
Correct: D
All pens are books and no chair is a pen. Nothing forces chairs and books to be related in any particular way: chairs may or may not be books, and books may or may not be chairs. None of the four conclusions necessarily follows.
Q44·CSAT·2022·Logical Reasoning
Consider the Question and two Statements given below in respect of three cities P, Q and R in a State Question How far is city P from city Q? Statement-1 City Q is 18 km from city R. Statement-2 City P is 43 km from city R. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
Knowing QR = 18 km and PR = 43 km gives two sides of a triangle but not the third side PQ, which can range between 25 km and 61 km depending on direction. The two statements together are not sufficient to answer how far P is from Q.
Q45·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
How many seconds in total are there in x weeks, x days, x hours, x minutes and x seconds?
Correct: D
x weeks = 604800x seconds, x days = 86400x, x hours = 3600x, x minutes = 60x and x seconds = x. Total = x(604800 + 86400 + 3600 + 60 + 1) = 694861x seconds.
Q46·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
With steady economic growth, higher literacy and increasing skill levels, the number of Indian middle-class families has gone up exponentially. Direct results of the affluence have been changes in dietary patterns and energy consumption levels. People have moved to a higher protein-based diet like milk products, fish and meat, all of which need significantly more water to produce than cereal- based diets. Increasing use of electronic and electric machines/gadgets and motor vehicles needs more and more energy and generation of energy needs water. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
Correct: D
The passage links rising affluence to a shift toward protein-rich diets - milk products, fish and meat - that need significantly more water than cereal-based diets, and to higher energy consumption. The implication is that water management practices in India need to change dramatically in the coming years.
Q47·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth. Therefore, the set of existing organisms can never be fully prepared for environmental catastrophes that await life. An outcome of this is the extinction of those species which cannot overcome environmental adversity. This failure to survive, in modern terms, can be attributed to the genomes which are unable to withstand geological vagaries or biological mishaps (infections, diseases and so on). In biological evolution on the earth, extinction of species has been a major feature. The earth may presently have up to ten million species, yet more than 90% of species that have ever lived on the earth are now extinct. Once again, the creationist doctrines fail to satisfactorily address why a divine creator will firstly bother to create millions of species and then allow them to perish. The Darwinian explanation for extinct life is once again simple, elegant and at once convincing organisms go extinct as a function of environmental or biological assaults for which their inheritance deems them ill-equipped. Therefore, so-called Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all. Evolution happens - this is a fact. The mechanism of evolution (Darwin proposed natural selection) is amply supported by scientific data. Indeed, to date no single zoological, botanical, geological, paleontological, genetic or physical evidence has refuted either of the central two main Darwinian ideas. If religion is not taken into consideration, Darwinian laws are acceptable just like the laws proposed by Copernicus, Galileo, Newton and Einstein - sets of natural laws that explain natural phenomena in the universe. Question: With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Only species that have the ability to overcome environmental catastrophes will survive and perpetuate. 2. More than 90% of the species on the earth are in the danger of getting extinct due to drastic changes in the environment. 3. Darwin's theory explains all the natural phenomena. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: A
Assumption 1 is valid: the passage says species unable to overcome environmental adversity go extinct, so only species that can overcome catastrophes survive and perpetuate. Assumption 2 (90 per cent endangered) is not stated, and assumption 3 overreaches - the passage treats Darwinian laws as explaining natural phenomena, not all phenomena.
Q48·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth. Therefore, the set of existing organisms can never be fully prepared for environmental catastrophes that await life. An outcome of this is the extinction of those species which cannot overcome environmental adversity. This failure to survive, in modern terms, can be attributed to the genomes which are unable to withstand geological vagaries or biological mishaps (infections, diseases and so on). In biological evolution on the earth, extinction of species has been a major feature. The earth may presently have up to ten million species, yet more than 90% of species that have ever lived on the earth are now extinct. Once again, the creationist doctrines fail to satisfactorily address why a divine creator will firstly bother to create millions of species and then allow them to perish. The Darwinian explanation for extinct life is once again simple, elegant and at once convincing organisms go extinct as a function of environmental or biological assaults for which their inheritance deems them ill-equipped. Therefore, so-called Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all. Evolution happens - this is a fact. The mechanism of evolution (Darwin proposed natural selection) is amply supported by scientific data. Indeed, to date no single zoological, botanical, geological, paleontological, genetic or physical evidence has refuted either of the central two main Darwinian ideas. If religion is not taken into consideration, Darwinian laws are acceptable just like the laws proposed by Copernicus, Galileo, Newton and Einstein - sets of natural laws that explain natural phenomena in the universe. Question: The passage suggests that Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all because
Correct: B
The author says the so-called theory of evolution is not a theory at all - evolution is a fact, and the mechanism of natural selection is amply supported by data: organisms go extinct as a function of environmental or biological assaults for which their inheritance leaves them ill-equipped. That observable, data-backed mechanism is why it is not merely a theory.
Q49·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth. Therefore, the set of existing organisms can never be fully prepared for environmental catastrophes that await life. An outcome of this is the extinction of those species which cannot overcome environmental adversity. This failure to survive, in modern terms, can be attributed to the genomes which are unable to withstand geological vagaries or biological mishaps (infections, diseases and so on). In biological evolution on the earth, extinction of species has been a major feature. The earth may presently have up to ten million species, yet more than 90% of species that have ever lived on the earth are now extinct. Once again, the creationist doctrines fail to satisfactorily address why a divine creator will firstly bother to create millions of species and then allow them to perish. The Darwinian explanation for extinct life is once again simple, elegant and at once convincing organisms go extinct as a function of environmental or biological assaults for which their inheritance deems them ill-equipped. Therefore, so-called Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all. Evolution happens - this is a fact. The mechanism of evolution (Darwin proposed natural selection) is amply supported by scientific data. Indeed, to date no single zoological, botanical, geological, paleontological, genetic or physical evidence has refuted either of the central two main Darwinian ideas. If religion is not taken into consideration, Darwinian laws are acceptable just like the laws proposed by Copernicus, Galileo, Newton and Einstein - sets of natural laws that explain natural phenomena in the universe. Question: According to the passage, natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth as 1. species not fully prepared to face the environmental changes that await them will face extinction 2. all the existing species would get extinct as their genomes will not withstand biological mishaps 3. inability of the genome to withstand environmental changes would result in extinction 4. extinction of species is a common feature Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
The passage says natural selection cannot anticipate future environments, so existing organisms are never fully prepared for environmental catastrophes (1); genomes unable to withstand environmental changes result in extinction (3); and extinction of species is presented as a common outcome (4). Statement 2 is wrong - the passage does not say all existing species would get extinct.
Q50·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
Three persons A, B and C are standing in a queue not necessarily in the same order. There are 4 persons between A and B, and 7 persons between B and C. If there are 11 persons ahead of C and 13 behind A, what could be the minimum number of persons in the queue?
Correct: A
22. Let C's position be 12 because 11 persons are ahead of C. B must be 7 places away from C, so B can be at position 4 or 20. To minimise the queue while keeping 13 persons behind A, choose the arrangement that keeps A as far left as possible. If B is at 4, A can be 5 places away at position 9. Then total persons = A's position + 13 = 9 + 13 = 22. This satisfies both gaps, so the minimum is 22.
Q51·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
In the series AABABCABCDABCDE..., which letter appears at the 100th place?
Correct: C
The series repeats A, AB, ABC, ABCD, ...; the cumulative lengths are the triangular numbers 1, 3, 6, ..., and after 13 blocks 91 letters have appeared. The 100th letter is therefore the 9th letter of the 14th block (ABCDEFGHIJKLMN), i.e., I.
Q52·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
A has some coins. He gives half of the coins and 2 more to B. B gives half of the coins and 2 more to C. C gives half of the coins and 2 more to D. The number of coins D has now, is the smallest two-digit number. How many coins does A have in the beginning?
Correct: D
52. Work backwards. D has the smallest two-digit number, 10. C gave half his coins plus 2 to D, so C had x coins where x/2 + 2 = 10; hence x = 16. B similarly had y/2 + 2 = 16, so y = 28. A had z/2 + 2 = 28, so z = 52.
Q53·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
A, B and C are three places such that there are three different roads from A to B, four different roads from B to C and three different roads from A to C. In how many different ways can one travel from A to C using these roads?
Correct: C
Travel directly from A to C in 3 ways, or go via B in 3 x 4 = 12 ways. Total = 3 + 12 = 15 different ways.
Q54·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
On one side of a 1.01 km long road, 101 plants are planted at equal distance from each other. What is the total distance between 5 consecutive plants?
Correct: B
40.4 m. A 1.01 km road is 1010 m long. With 101 plants at equal distances including both ends, there are 100 gaps. Each gap = 1010/100 = 10.1 m. Five consecutive plants span four gaps, so distance = 4 x 10.1 = 40.4 m.
Q55·CSAT·2022·Logical Reasoning
Consider the Question and two Statements given below Question: Is Z brother of X? Statement-1 X is a brother of Y and Y is a brother of Z. Statement-2: X, Y and Z are siblings. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
Statement 1 shows X is the brother of Y and Y is the brother of Z, but Z could be a brother or a sister. Statement 2 only says all three are siblings. Even together they do not establish Z's gender, so the question cannot be answered.
Q56·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
The letters A, B, C, D and E are arranged in such a way that there are exactly two letters between A and E. How many such arrangements are possible?
Correct: C
Treat A and E with exactly two letters between them as a block of 4 positions. The block can start at position 1 or 2 (2 choices), A and E can swap within it (2 ways), and B, C, D fill the remaining 3 positions in 3! = 6 ways. Total arrangements = 2 x 2 x 6 = 24.
Q57·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau. Neither new strains nor fancy agrochemicals are raising the yields. Nor is there much unfarmed land left that is suitable to be brought under the plough. If global temperature continues to rise, some places will become unsuitable for farming. Application of technology can help overcome these problems. Agricultural technology is changing fast. Much of this change is brought about by affluent farmers in the West/Americas. Techniques developed in the West are being adapted in some places to make tropical crops more productive. Technology is of little use if it is not adapted. In the developing world, that applies as much to existing farming techniques as it does to the latest advances in genetic modification. Extending to the smallholders and subsistence farmers of Africa and Asia the best of today's agricultural practices, in such simple matters as how much fertilizers to apply and when, would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. So would things like better roads and storage facilities, to allow for the carriage of surpluses to markets and reduce wastage. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Growing enough food for future generations will be a challenge. 2. Corporate farming is a viable option for food security in poor countries. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: A
Assumption 1 is valid: plateaued yields, scarce new farmland and climate stress make growing enough food for future generations a challenge. Assumption 2 is not: the passage recommends extending best practices to smallholders, not corporate farming.
Q58·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau. Neither new strains nor fancy agrochemicals are raising the yields. Nor is there much unfarmed land left that is suitable to be brought under the plough. If global temperature continues to rise, some places will become unsuitable for farming. Application of technology can help overcome these problems. Agricultural technology is changing fast. Much of this change is brought about by affluent farmers in the West/Americas. Techniques developed in the West are being adapted in some places to make tropical crops more productive. Technology is of little use if it is not adapted. In the developing world, that applies as much to existing farming techniques as it does to the latest advances in genetic modification. Extending to the smallholders and subsistence farmers of Africa and Asia the best of today's agricultural practices, in such simple matters as how much fertilizers to apply and when, would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. So would things like better roads and storage facilities, to allow for the carriage of surpluses to markets and reduce wastage. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made 1. Poor countries need to bring about change in their existing farming techniques. 2. Developed countries have better infrastructure and they waste less food. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: A
Assumption 1 is valid: the passage says extending the best of today's agricultural practices to the smallholders of Africa and Asia would greatly increase food availability - poor countries need to change their existing farming techniques. Assumption 2 is not: the passage recommends better roads and storage in the developing world but does not claim developed countries have better infrastructure.
Q59·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau. Neither new strains nor fancy agrochemicals are raising the yields. Nor is there much unfarmed land left that is suitable to be brought under the plough. If global temperature continues to rise, some places will become unsuitable for farming. Application of technology can help overcome these problems. Agricultural technology is changing fast. Much of this change is brought about by affluent farmers in the West/Americas. Techniques developed in the West are being adapted in some places to make tropical crops more productive. Technology is of little use if it is not adapted. In the developing world, that applies as much to existing farming techniques as it does to the latest advances in genetic modification. Extending to the smallholders and subsistence farmers of Africa and Asia the best of today's agricultural practices, in such simple matters as how much fertilizers to apply and when, would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. So would things like better roads and storage facilities, to allow for the carriage of surpluses to markets and reduce wastage. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Development of agricultural tech-nology is confined to developed countries. 2. Agricultural technology is not adapted in developing countries. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: D
Assumption 1 is wrong: the passage does not say agricultural technology development is confined to developed countries. Assumption 2 is wrong: it says technology is of little use if not adapted - it does not assert that technology is not adapted in developing countries. Hence neither is valid.
Q60·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
The increase in the price of a certain item was 25%. Then the price was decreased by 20% and then again increased by 10%. What is the resultant increase in the price?
Correct: B
Net multiplier = 1.25 x 0.80 x 1.10 = 1.10, so the resultant increase in the price is 10%.
Q61·CSAT·2022·Logical Reasoning
Consider the Question and two Statements given below Question: Is x an integer? Statement-1: x/3 is not an integer. Statement-2: 3x is an integer. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
Take x = 1/3: then x/3 = 1/9 is not an integer and 3x = 1 is an integer, satisfying both statements, yet x is not an integer. The statements together are not sufficient to decide whether x is an integer.
Q62·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
How many 3-digit natural numbers (without repetition of digits) are there such that each digit is odd and the number is divisible by 5?
Correct: B
12. Odd digits are 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9. For divisibility by 5, the units digit must be 5. The hundreds and tens places must be filled by two different digits chosen from 1, 3, 7 and 9. Number of arrangements = 4 x 3 = 12.
Q63·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
In a tournament of Chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match. It is given that no match results in a tie/draw. How many matches are played in the entire tournament?
Correct: C
149. In a knockout tournament with no draw, every match eliminates exactly one player. To get one winner from 150 entrants, 149 players must be eliminated. Therefore 149 matches are played.
Q64·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If the order of the letters in the English alphabet is reversed and each letter represents the letter whose position it occupies, then which one of the following represents LUCKNOW?
Correct: D
In the reversed alphabet, the letter at position p maps to position 27 - p: L(12) to O(15), U(21) to F(6), C(3) to X(24), K(11) to P(16), N(14) to M(13), O(15) to L(12), W(23) to D(4). Hence LUCKNOW is represented by OFXPMLD.
Q65·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3:2. If they start together in the same direction, how many times would the first one pass the other (the start-off is not counted as passing)?
Correct: B
3. The circular track length is 300 m and the race distance is 3 km, so the faster runner covers 10 laps. Speeds are in the ratio 3:2, so while the faster runner covers 3000 m, the relative distance gained over the slower runner is one-third of 3000 = 1000 m. Each pass requires a relative gain of one lap = 300 m. Number of completed passes = floor(1000/300) = 3.
Q66·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
The poverty line is quite unsatisfactory when it comes to grasping the extent of poverty in India. It is not only because of its extremely narrow definition of who is poor' and the debatable methodology used to count the poor, but also because of a more fundamental assumption underlying it. It exclusively relies on the notion of poverty as insufficient income or insufficient purchasing power. One can better categorize it by calling it income poverty. If poverty is ultimately about deprivations income affecting human well-being, then poverty is only one aspect of it. Poverty of a life, in our view, lies not merely in the impoverished state in which the person actually lives, but also in the lack of real opportunity given by social constraints as well as personal circumstances- to choose other types of living. Even the relevance of low incomes, meagre possessions, and other aspects of what are standardly seen as economic poverty relate ultimately to their role in curtailing capabilities, i.e., their role in severely restricting the choices people have to lead variable and valued lives. Question: What does the author mean by poverty of a life?
Correct: A
The author says poverty of a life lies not merely in the impoverished state a person actually lives in, but in the lack of real opportunity - given social constraints and personal circumstances - to choose other types of living. It is all deprivations stemming from lack of income plus lack of real opportunities.
Q67·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Why is income poverty only one measure of counting the 'poor'?
Correct: A
Income poverty captures only deprivations of income or purchasing power; the passage argues that poverty of a life also includes lack of real opportunity and capabilities. Hence income poverty is only one measure because it talks of only one kind of deprivation, ignoring all others.
Q68·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Why is the methodology adopted in India to count the 'poor' debatable?
Correct: D
The methodology is debatable because it exclusively relies on the notion of poverty as insufficient income or purchasing power, ignoring the capability deprivations the passage highlights. Hence it is based on the proposition of poverty as meagre income or buying capacity.
Q69·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
"In simple matters like shoe-making, we think only a specially trained person will serve our purpose, but in politics, we presume that everyone who knows how to get votes knows how to administer a State. When we are ill, we call for a trained physician, whose degree is a guarantee of specific preparation and technical competence we do not ask for the handsomest physician, or the most eloquent one: well then, when the whole State is ill should we not look for the service and guidance of the wisest and the best?" Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the message of the author of the passage?
Correct: C
The passage contrasts shoe-making and medicine, where we demand trained specialists, with politics, where we presume anyone who can get votes can administer a State. The implication is that we need to devise a method of barring incompetence from public office.
Q70·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
The digits 1 to 9 are arranged in three rows in such a way that each row contains three digits, and the number formed in the second row is twice the number formed in the first row; and the number formed in the third row is thrice the number formed in the first row. Repetition of digits is not allowed. If only three of the four digits 2, 3, 7 and 9 are allowed to use in the first row, how many such combinations are possible to be arranged in the three rows?
Correct: C
2. Let the first row be a three-digit number N. The second and third rows must be 2N and 3N, and together the nine digits 1 to 9 must be used once each. The valid arrangements satisfying the added restriction are 273, 546, 819 and 327, 654, 981. In each, the first row uses exactly three of the digits 2, 3, 7 and 9. Hence 2 such combinations are possible.
Q71·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
Which number amongst 2^40, 3^21, 4^18 and 8^12 is the smallest?
Correct: B
3^21. Rewrite the options with comparable bases. 4^18 = (2^2)^18 = 2^36, and 8^12 = (2^3)^12 = 2^36. Thus both are smaller than 2^40 but still powers of 2. To compare 3^21 with 2^36, note that 3^7 = 2187, which is less than 2^12 = 4096. Therefore 3^21 = (3^7)^3 is less than (2^12)^3 = 2^36. So 3^21 is the smallest.
Q72·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A bill for Rs. 1,840 is paid in the denominations of Rs. 50, Rs. 20 and Rs. 10 notes. 50 notes in all are used. Consider the following statements: 1. 25 notes of Rs. 50 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of Rs. 20 and Rs. 10. 2. 35 notes of Rs. 20 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of Rs. 50 and Rs. 10. 3. 20 notes of Rs. 10 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of Rs. 50 and Rs. 20. Which of the above statements are not correct?
Correct: D
1, 2 and 3. Let the numbers of Rs. 50, Rs. 20 and Rs. 10 notes be x, y and z. Then x + y + z = 50 and 50x + 20y + 10z = 1840, or 5x + 2y + z = 184. Subtracting the first equation gives 4x + y = 134. Statement 1 with x = 25 gives y = 34 and then z = -9, impossible. Statement 2 with y = 35 gives 4x = 99, not an integer. Statement 3 with z = 20 gives x + y = 30 and 5x + 2y = 164, leading to 3x = 104, not an integer. Hence all three statements are not correct.
Q73·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Which date of June 2099 among the following is Sunday?
Correct: D
1 January 2099 is a Thursday (from 1 January 2000, a Saturday, 99 years elapse including 25 leap years: 99 + 25 = 124 = 5 mod 7). 7 June 2099 is day 158 of the year, and 157 = 3 (mod 7), so 7 June 2099 is a Sunday.
Q74·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
Two friends X and Y start running and they run together for 50 m in the same direction and reach a point. X turns right and runs 60 m, while Y turns left and runs 40 m. Then X turns left and runs 50 m and stops, while Y turns right and runs 50 m and then stops. How far are the two friends from each other now?
Correct: A
100 m. Both run 50 m in the same direction first, so that part cancels for their separation. X then moves 60 m to one side and later 50 m forward; Y moves 40 m to the opposite side and later 50 m forward. Their final forward positions are equal, while their sideways separation is 60 + 40 = 100 m.
Q75·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
An Identity Card has the number ABCDEFG, not necessarily in that order, where each letter represents a distinct digit (1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 only). The number is divisible by 9. After deleting the first digit from the right, the resulting number is divisible by 6. After deleting two digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 5. After deleting three digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 4. After deleting four digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 3. After deleting five digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 2. Which of the following is a possible value for the sum of the middle three digits of the number?
Correct: A
8. The available digits are 1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8 and 9. Applying the divisibility conditions step by step gives possible full numbers such as 7412589, which satisfies the rules: the full number is divisible by 9; deleting one digit from the right gives an even number divisible by 6; deleting two gives a number ending in 5; deleting three gives a number divisible by 4; deleting four gives a number divisible by 3; and deleting five gives an even number. The middle three digits in 7412589 are 1, 2 and 5, whose sum is 8. Hence 8 is a possible value.
Q76·CSAT·2022·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the value of X in the sequence 20, 10, 10, 15, 30, 75, X?
Correct: D
225. Look at the multiplying factors: 20 x 1/2 = 10, 10 x 1 = 10, 10 x 3/2 = 15, 15 x 2 = 30, and 30 x 5/2 = 75. The next factor is 3, so X = 75 x 3 = 225.
Q77·CSAT·2022·Reading Comprehension
Unless the forces and tendencies which are responsible for destroying the country's environment are checked in the near future and afforestation of denuded areas is taken up on a massive scale, the harshness of the climatic conditions and soil erosion by wind and water will increase to such an extent that agriculture, which is the mainstay of our people, will gradually become impossible. The desert countries of the world and our own desert areas in Rajasthan are a grim reminder of the consequences of large-scale deforestation. Pockets of desert-like landscape are now appearing in other parts of the country including the Sutlej-Ganga Plains and the Deccan Plateau. Where only a few decades back there used to be lush green forests with perennial streams and springs, there is only brown earth, bare of vegetation, without any water in the streams and springs except in the rainy season. Question: According to the passage given above, deforestation and denudation will ultimately lead to which of the following? 1. Depletion of soil resource 2. Shortage of land for the common man 3. Lack of water for cultivation Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
The passage on deforestation and denudation links them to depletion of the soil resource (1) and lack of water for cultivation (3) through erosion and disturbed hydrology. Shortage of land for the common man (2) is not the consequence described.
Q78·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
The main threat to maintaining progress in human development comes from the evident unsustainability of production and consumption patterns. Current production models rely heavily on fossil fuels. We now know that this is unsustainable because the resources are finite. The close link between economic growth and greenhouse gas emissions needs to be severed for human development to become truly sustainable. Some developed countries have begun to alleviate the worst effects by expanding recycling and investing in public transport and infrastructure. But most developing countries are hampered by the high costs and low availability of clean energy sources. Developed countries need to support developing countries' transition to sustainable human development. Consider the following statements: Developed countries can support developing countries' transition to sustainable human development by 1. making clean energy sources available at low cost 2. providing loans for improving their public transport at nominal interest rates 3. encouraging them to change their production and consumption patterns Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct: B
The passage notes that developing countries are hampered by the high costs and low availability of clean energy and that developed countries invest in public transport. So support can come through making clean energy available at low cost (1) and helping finance public transport (2). Changing production and consumption patterns (3) is what the countries themselves must do, not a form of external support. Hence 1 and 2 only.
Q79·CSAT·2022·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
The main threat to maintaining progress in human development comes from the evident unsustainability of production and consumption patterns. Current production models rely heavily on fossil fuels. We now know that this is unsustainable because the resources are finite. The close link between economic growth and greenhouse gas emissions needs to be severed for human development to become truly sustainable. Some developed countries have begun to alleviate the worst effects by expanding recycling and investing in public transport and infrastructure. But most developing countries are hampered by the high costs and low availability of clean energy sources. Developed countries need to support developing countries' transition to sustainable human development. Unsustainability in production pattern is due to which of the following? 1. Heavy dependence on fossil fuels 2. Limited availability of resources 3. Expansion of recycling Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: A
The passage identifies unsustainability with heavy reliance on fossil fuels and the finiteness of those resources. Expansion of recycling is a mitigation measure, not a cause. Hence statements 1 and 2 only.