80 CSAT questions from the official UPSC 2023 Prelims paper, each with the verified answer key and an explanation.
1–80 of 80
Q1·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
The letters of the word "INCOMPREHENSIBILITIES" are arranged alphabetically in reverse order. How many positions of the letter/letters will remain unchanged?
Correct: C
Write the letters of INCOMPREHENSIBILITIES in descending alphabetical order: T S S R P O N N M L I I I I I H E E E C B. Comparing with the original word position by position, the letters at positions 13 and 15 (both I) remain unchanged. Hence two positions remain unchanged.
Q2·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
A cuboid of dimensions 7 cm × 5 cm x 3 cm is painted red, green and blue colour on each pair of opposite faces of dimensions 7 cm x 5 cm, 5 cm x 3 cm, 7 cm × 3 cm respectively. Then the cuboid is cut and separated into various cubes each of side length 1 cm. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. There are exactly 15 small cubes with no paint on any face. 2. There are exactly 6 small cubes with exactly two faces, one painted with blue and the other with green. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: A
1 only. A 7 cm x 5 cm x 3 cm cuboid cut into 1 cm cubes has unpainted interior cubes equal to (7-2)(5-2)(3-2) = 5 x 3 x 1 = 15, so statement 1 is correct. Blue is painted on the pair of 7 x 3 faces and green on the pair of 5 x 3 faces. Cubes with exactly one blue face and one green face lie on the edges common to blue and green faces, excluding corners. There are 4 such edges, each of length 3, giving 3-2 = 1 such cube per edge, so only 4 cubes, not 6. Statement 2 is incorrect.
Q3·CSAT·2023·Logical Reasoning
Let P, Q, R, S and T be five statements such that: I. If P is true, then both Q and S are true. II. If R and S are true, then T is false. Which of the following can be concluded? 1. If T is true, then at least one of P and R must be false. 2. If Q is true, then P is true. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: A
From II, if T is true then R and S cannot both be true. From I, if P is true then S is true; combined with T true, this forces R to be false. So when T is true, at least one of P and R must be false - conclusion 1 follows. Conclusion 2 does not: Q being true does not imply P is true. Hence only 1 follows.
Q4·CSAT·2023·Logical Reasoning
Consider the following statements in respect of five candidates P, Q, R, S and T. Two statements are true and one statement is false. True Statement: One of P and Q was elected for the job. False Statement: At least one of R and S was selected for the job. True Statement: At most two of R, S and T were selected for the job. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn? 1. At least four were selected for the job. 2. S was selected for the job. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: D
The false statement says at least one of R and S was selected, so neither R nor S was selected. Then the conclusion that S was selected is wrong, and nothing in the statements fixes how many of P, Q and T were selected, so at least four being selected cannot be concluded. Neither conclusion follows.
Q5·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
AB and CD are 2-digit numbers. Multiplying AB with CD results in a 3-digit number DEF. Adding DEF to another 3-digit number GHI results in 975. Further A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I are distinct digits. If E = 0, F = 8, then what is A + B + C equal to?
Correct: A
6. Since E=0 and F=8, the product DEF is D08. We need AB x CD = D08 and D08 + GHI = 975, with A to I distinct digits. Testing the multiplication constraints gives the valid arrangement AB = 12 and CD = 34, so DEF = 408 and GHI = 567. The digits are distinct and satisfy all conditions. Therefore A+B+C = 1+2+3 = 6.
Q6·CSAT·2023·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Consider the sequence ABC__ ABC_ DABBCD_ABCD that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence?
Correct: D
The sequence follows the pattern ABC__ ABC_ DABBCD_ABCD. Filling the blanks with D, D, C and A gives the blocks AABCD, ABBCD, ABCCD, ABCDD - each block is ABCD with one letter doubled in turn. Hence the completing choice is DDCA.
Q7·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the remainder if 2^192 is divided by 6?
Correct: D
4. The intended expression is 2^192 divided by 6. Powers of 2 modulo 6 alternate: 2, 4, 2, 4, ... For every even exponent, the remainder is 4. Since 192 is even, the remainder is 4.
Q8·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
The last end of the state is not to dominate men, nor to restrain them by fear; rather it is so to free each man from fear that he may live and act with full security, and without injury to himself or his neighbour. The end of the state, I repeat, is not to make rational beings into brute beasts and machines. It is to enable their bodies and their minds to function safely. It is to lead men to live by, and to exercise, a free reason; that they may not waste their strength in hatred, anger and guile, nor act unfairly toward one another. Question: Based on the above passage, which one of the following terms best expresses the ultimate goal of the state?
Correct: D
The passage (Spinoza) says the last end of the state is to free each man from fear so that he may live and act with full security and without injury - enabling bodies and minds to function safely, not making rational beings into brute machines. The end of the state is liberty.
Q9·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
Science by itself is not enough, there must be a force and discipline outside the sciences to coordinate them and point to a goal. It is not possible to run a course aright when the goal itself has not been rightly placed. What science needs is philosophy - the analysis of scientific method and the coordination of scientific purposes and results; without this, any science must be superficial. Government suffers, precisely like science, for lack of philosophy. Philosophy bears to science the same relationship which statesmanship bears to politics: movement guided by total knowledge and perspective, as against aimless and individual seeking. Just as the pursuit of knowledge becomes scholasticism when divorced from the actual needs of men and life, so the pursuit of politics becomes a destructive bedlam when divorced from science and philosophy. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most rational, logical and practical message conveyed by the passage?
Correct: B
The passage says government suffers, precisely like science, for lack of philosophy, and that the pursuit of politics becomes a destructive bedlam when divorced from science and philosophy. The practical message is that it is not desirable to have governments managed by empirical statesmen unless well mixed with others who are grounded in philosophy and learning.
Q10·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
In India, while the unemployment rate is a frequently used measure of poor performance of the economy, under conditions of rising school and college enrolment, it paints an inaccurate picture. The reported unemployment rate is dominated by the experience of younger Indians who face higher employment challenges and exhibit greater willingness to wait for the right job than their older peers. The unemployment challenge is greater for people with secondary or higher education, and rising education levels inflate unemployment challenges. Question: Which one of the following statements most likely reflects as to what the author of the passage intends to say?
Correct: B
The passage says the reported unemployment rate is dominated by younger Indians who face higher employment challenges and are willing to wait for the right job, and that rising school and college enrolment makes the measure misleading. The message is that unemployment must be seen as a function of rising education and the aspirations of young Indians.
Q11·CSAT·2023·Logical Reasoning
Consider the following: I. A + B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B. II. A - B means A is not greater than B. III. A × B means A is not smaller than B. IV. A ÷ B means A is neither greater nor equal to B. V. A ± B means A is neither smaller nor greater than B. Statement: P × Q, P - T, T ÷ R, R ± S Conclusion-1: Q ± T Conclusion-2: S + Q Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statement and the Conclusions?
Correct: B
Decode the symbols: P x Q means P >= Q; P - T means P <= T; T ÷ R means T < R; R ± S means R = S. Chaining gives Q <= P <= T < R = S. Conclusion-1 (Q = T) is not forced since Q can be less than T. Conclusion-2 (S > Q) follows because S = R > T >= Q, so S > Q. Hence only Conclusion-2 follows.
Q12·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
There are large number of silver coins weighing 2 gm, 5 gm, 10 gm, 25 gm, 50 gm each. Consider the following statements: 1. To buy 78 gm of coins one must buy at least 7 coins. 2. To weigh 78 gm using these coins one can use less than 7 coins. weighing 2 gm, 5 gm, 10 gm, 25 gm, 50 gm each. Consider the following statements: 1. To buy 78 gm of coins one must buy at least 7 coins. 2. To weigh 78 gm using these coins one can use less than 7 coins.
Correct: C
Statement 1: the cheapest way to buy 78 gm is one 50 gm coin, two 10 gm coins and four 2 gm coins - 7 coins in all; no combination with fewer coins sums to 78 gm, so at least 7 coins are needed. Statement 2: to weigh 78 gm one can balance 80 gm (50 + 25 + 5) on one pan against the object and a 2 gm coin on the other - just 4 coins, which is less than 7. Both statements are correct.
Q13·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
There are five persons P, Q, R, S and T each one of whom has to be assigned one task. Neither P nor Q can be assigned Task-1. Task-2 must be assigned to either R or S. In how many ways can the assignment be done?
Correct: D
24. Task 2 must be assigned to R or S: 2 choices. If Task 2 is assigned to R, Task 1 cannot go to P or Q and cannot go to R, so it has 2 choices: S or T. Similarly if Task 2 is assigned to S. The remaining three tasks can be assigned in 3! = 6 ways. Total = 2 x 2 x 6 = 24.
Q14·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
A rectangular floor measures 4 m in length and 2.2 m in breadth. Tiles of size 140 cm by 60 cm have to be laid such that the tiles do not overlap. A tile can be placed in any orientation so long as its edges are parallel to the edges of the floor. What is the maximum number of tiles that can be accommodated on the floor?
Correct: C
Floor = 400 cm x 220 cm. The maximum packing uses six vertical tiles (60 x 140) along the length and two horizontal tiles (140 x 60) in the remaining 80 cm strip: 6 + 2 = 8 tiles. Nine tiles cannot be accommodated without overlap.
Q15·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
A flag has to be designed with 4 horizontal stripes using some or all of the colours red, green and yellow. What is the number of different ways in which this can be done SO that no two adjacent stripes have the same colour?
Correct: C
24. The first stripe can be any of the 3 colours. Each next stripe can be any of the remaining 2 colours because adjacent stripes cannot match. Total designs = 3 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 24.
Q16·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
In an examination, the maximum marks for each of the four papers namely P, Q, R and S are 100. Marks scored by the students are in integers. A student can score 99% in n different ways. What is the value of n?
Correct: D
35. To score 99% across four 100-mark papers, total marks must be 396 out of 400. Equivalently, the total loss from 400 is 4 marks. Let the four paper-wise losses be non-negative integers adding to 4. Number of solutions = C(4+4-1,4-1)=C(7,3)=35.
Q17·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
India should ensure the growth of the digital economy while keeping personal data of citizens secure and protected. No one will innovate in a surveillance-oriented environment or in a place where an individual's personal information is compromised. The ultimate control of data must reside with the individuals who generate it; they should be enabled to use, restrict or monetise it as they wish. Therefore, data protection laws should enable the right kind of innovation - one that is user-centric and privacy protecting. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Protection of privacy is not just a right, but it has value to the economy. 2. There is a fundamental link between privacy and innovation. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: C
Assumption 1 is valid: the passage says no one will innovate in a surveillance-oriented environment, so privacy protection has value to the economy. Assumption 2 is valid: data protection laws should enable user-centric, privacy-protecting innovation - a fundamental link between privacy and innovation. Both are valid.
Q18·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
Pharmaceutical patents grant protection to the patentee for the duration of the patent term. The patentees enjoy the liberty to determine the prices of medicines, which is time-limited to the period of monopoly, but could be unaffordable to the public. Such patent protection offered to the patentees is believed to benefit the public over the longer term through innovations and research and development (R&D), although it comes at a cost, in the nature of higher prices for the patented medicine. The patent regime and price protection - through a legally validated high price for the medicine during the currency of the patent - provide the patentee with a legitimate mechanism to get returns on the costs incurred in innovation and research. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Patent protection given to patentees puts a huge burden on public's purchasing power in accessing patented medicines. 2. Dependence on other countries for pharmaceutical products is a huge burden for developing and poor countries. 3. Providing medicines to the public at affordable prices is a key goal during the public health policy design in many countries. 4. Governments need to find an appropriate balance between the rights of patentees and the requirements of the patients. Which of the above assumptions are valid?
Correct: B
Assumption 1 is valid: patent protection lets patentees set prices that could be unaffordable to the public, burdening their purchasing power for patented medicines. Assumption 4 is valid: the passage implicitly calls for a balance between patentee rights and patient requirements. Assumptions 2 and 3 are not mentioned.
Q19·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
Household finance in India is unique. We have a tendency to invest heavily in physical assets such as gold and property. Steps to encourage the financialization of savings are critical. A populace accustomed to traditional processes will not simply jump into financialization. Hurdles to change include onerous bureaucracy, a scepticism of organized financial institutions, a lack of basic information about which of the myriad services and providers is best for each family, and how (and even if) one can make the transition between them if necessary. Question: Regarding the financialization of household savings, which of the following statements best reflect the solutions that are implied by the passage? 1. A flexible environment is needed to develop solutions. 2. Households need customised solutions. 3. Innovations in financial technology are required. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
The passage lists hurdles - onerous bureaucracy, scepticism, lack of basic information about which service fits each family - implying a flexible environment is needed (1), households need customised solutions (2), and innovations in financial technology are required to overcome the hurdles (3). All three are implied.
Q20·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
The paradox of choice is illustrated by the story of Buridan's ass. Jean Buridan, the 14th century philosopher, wrote about free will and the inability to choose due to numerous choices and uncertainties. In the story, a donkey stands between two equally appealing stacks of hay. Unable to decide which to eat, it starves to death. Changes in technology and innovations such as smart phones and tablets only exacerbate our glut of choices. Constant connectivity and overconsumption of real-time data and social media can leave little room for self-reflection and rest, making decisions more difficult. Life is about choices. Many people are overwhelmed with attractive life choices, yet find themselves unhappy and anxious. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical message implied by the above passage?
Correct: D
The passage uses Buridan's ass - a donkey that starves between two equally appealing haystacks - to illustrate that having too few choices may not be a good thing, but having too many can be equally as difficult.
Q21·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
For five children with ages a < b < c < d < e; any two successive ages differ by 2 years. Question: What is the age of the youngest child? Statement-1: The age of the eldest is 3 times the youngest. Statement-2: The average age of the children is 8 years. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: B
Let the ages be a, a+2, a+4, a+6, a+8. Statement-1: the eldest is 3 times the youngest, so a + 8 = 3a, giving a = 4. Statement-2: the average age is (5a + 20)/5 = a + 4 = 8, giving a = 4. Either statement alone gives the youngest child's age as 4 years.
Q22·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider a 3-digit number. Question: What is the number? Statement-1: The sum of the digits of the number is equal to the product of the digits. Statement-2: The number is divisible by the sum of the digits of the number. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
Many 3-digit numbers satisfy each statement separately: for example 123 has digit sum equal to digit product (1+2+3 = 1x2x3 = 6), and Harshad numbers satisfy divisibility by digit sum. Even combining both statements does not pin down a unique number. Hence the question cannot be answered.
Q23·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
In a party, 75 persons took tea, 60 persons took coffee and 15 persons took both tea and coffee. No one taking milk takes tea. Each person takes at least one drink. Question: How many persons attended the party? Statement-1: 50 persons took milk. Statement-2: Number of persons who attended the party is five times the number of persons who took milk only. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements !
Correct: A
Tea and coffee account for 75 + 60 - 15 = 120 persons, and since no milk-drinker takes tea, the total is 120 plus the number of milk-only drinkers. Statement 1 (50 took milk) does not say how many milk drinkers also took coffee, so it is not sufficient. Statement 2: total = 5 x (milk-only), and total = 120 + (milk-only), so 5y = 120 + y, giving y = 30 and total = 150. Hence one of the statements alone (Statement 2) answers the question, and the other does not.
Q24·CSAT·2023·Logical Reasoning
Question: Is (p + q - r) greater than (p - q + r), where p, q and r are integers? Statement-1: (p - q) is positive. Statement-2: (p - r) is negative. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: C
We need to compare p + q - r with p - q + r, i.e. whether 2q > 2r, or q > r. Statement-1 (p - q positive) gives p > q; Statement-2 (p - r negative) gives p < r. Together, r > p > q, so q < r and the answer to the question is no. Both statements together are needed and sufficient.
Q25·CSAT·2023·Logical Reasoning
Question: Is p greater than q? Statement-1: p x q is greater than zero. Statement-2: p^2 is greater than q^2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
Statement-1 says p and q have the same sign; Statement-2 says |p| > |q|. If both are positive, p > q; if both are negative, p < q. The two cases give opposite answers, so the question cannot be answered even using both statements together.
Q26·CSAT·2023·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
What is the middle term of the sequence Z, Z, Y, Y, Y, X, X, X, X, W, W, W, W, W,..., A?
Correct: B
The sequence has Z twice, Y thrice, X four times, and so on up to A twenty-seven times: 2 + 3 + 4 + ... + 27 = 377 terms. The middle term is the 189th. The cumulative count after J (18 letters) is 2 + 3 + ... + 18 = 170, so the 189th letter is the 19th I. Hence the middle term is I.
Q27·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
40 children are standing in a circle and one of them (say child-1) has a ring. The ring is passed clockwise. Child-1 passes on to child-2, child-2 passes on to child-4, child-4 passes on to child-7 and so on. After how many such changes (including child-1) will the ring be in the hands of child-1 again?
Correct: B
15. For two clock hands, the minute hand gains on the hour hand at 5.5 degrees per minute. Two successive overlaps are therefore separated by 360/5.5 = 720/11 = 65.45 minutes. Rounded to the nearest integer, this is 65 minutes, so option B is correct.
Q28·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
While awareness on use/misuse and abuse of antibiotics is common knowledge, as is the impact of dosing poultry with antibiotics, the environmental impact of antibiotics-manufacturing companies not treating their waste has scarcely been discussed at any length or seriousness thus far. Pollution from antibiotics factories is fuelling the rise of drug-resistant infections. The occurrence of drug-resistant bacteria surrounding the pharma manufacturing plants is well known. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
Correct: A
The passage says pollution from antibiotics factories is fuelling drug-resistant infections, and that the environmental impact of untreated manufacturing waste has scarcely been discussed. The crux is that it is necessary to put proper effluent treatment protocols in place.
Q29·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
While awareness on use/misuse and abuse of antibiotics is common knowledge, as is the impact of dosing poultry with antibiotics, the environmental impact of antibiotics-manufacturing companies not treating their waste has scarcely been discussed at any length or seriousness thus far. Pollution from antibiotics factories is fuelling the rise of drug-resistant infections. The occurrence of drug-resistant bacteria surrounding the pharma manufacturing plants is well known. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and practical message conveyed by the passage?
Correct: A
The passage says pollution from antibiotics factories is fuelling drug-resistant infections, and that the environmental impact of untreated manufacturing waste has scarcely been discussed. The crux is that it is necessary to put proper effluent treatment protocols in place.
Q30·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
Sourcing food from non-agricultural lands (uncultivated systems such as forests, wetlands, pastures, etc.) in addition to agricultural lands enables a systemic approach to food consumption. It allows rural and tribal communities to sustain themselves for the whole year and steer clear of natural disasters and season-induced shortfalls of agricultural food. Since the productivity of trees is often more resilient to adverse weather conditions than annual crops, forest foods often provide a safety net during periods of food shortages caused by crop failure; forest foods also make important contributions during seasonal crop production gaps. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage?
Correct: D
The passage says sourcing food from uncultivated systems such as forests, wetlands and pastures, in addition to agricultural lands, sustains rural and tribal communities through the year and protects them from season-induced shortfalls. The message is that agroecosystems should be developed in addition to or along with conventional agriculture.
Q31·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
There are three traffic signals. Each signal changes colour from green to red and then from red to green. The first signal takes 25 seconds, the second signal takes 39 seconds and the third signal takes 60 seconds to change the colour from green to red. The durations for green and red colours are same. At 2:00 p.m., they together turn green. At what time will they change to green next, simultaneously?
Correct: B
4:10 p.m. Each signal takes the same duration for green and red. So the full green-to-green cycles are 50 seconds, 78 seconds and 120 seconds. The next simultaneous green occurs after the LCM of 50, 78 and 120 seconds. Now 50=2 x 5^2, 78=2 x 3 x 13 and 120=2^3 x 3 x 5. LCM = 2^3 x 3 x 5^2 x 13 = 7800 seconds = 130 minutes. Starting from 2:00 p.m., 130 minutes later is 4:10 p.m.
Q32·CSAT·2023·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If today is Sunday, then which day is it exactly on 1010 th day?
Correct: A
10^10 mod 7 = 4 (since 10 = 3 mod 7 and 3^10 = 3^4 = 81 = 4 mod 7). Counting today (Sunday) as the first day, the 4th day from today is Wednesday. Hence the 10^10-th day is Wednesday.
Q33·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the number of selections of 10 consecutive things out of 12 things in a circle taken in the clockwise direction?
Correct: C
12. In a circle of 12 things, a selection of 10 consecutive things in clockwise direction is determined by its starting point. There are 12 possible starting points, and each gives one distinct clockwise block of 10 consecutive things.
Q34·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the sum of all 4-digit numbers less than 2000 formed by the digits 1, 2, 3 and 4, where none of the digits is repeated?
Correct: A
7998. A 4-digit number less than 2000 must have 1 in the thousands place. The remaining digits 2, 3 and 4 can be arranged in 3! = 6 ways. In these six numbers, each of 2, 3 and 4 appears exactly two times in the hundreds, tens and units places. Sum = 6 x 1000 + 2(2+3+4)(100+10+1) = 6000 + 2 x 9 x 111 = 7998.
Q35·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
Let pp, qq and rr be 2-digit numbers where p < q < r. If pp + qq + rr = tt0, where tt0 is a 3-digit number ending with zero, consider the following statements: 1. The number of possible values of p is 5. 2. The number of possible values of q is 6. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct: C
Both 1 and 2. The numbers pp, qq and rr are 11p, 11q and 11r. Their sum is 11(p+q+r). The result tt0 is a three-digit number ending in 0, i.e. 110t. Therefore p+q+r = 10t, so the increasing digit triples must have sum 10 or 20. The possible triples are (1,2,7), (1,3,6), (1,4,5), (2,3,5), (3,8,9), (4,7,9), (5,6,9) and (5,7,8). Thus possible p values are 1,2,3,4,5, giving 5 values; possible q values are 2,3,4,6,7,8, giving 6 values. Both statements are correct.
Q36·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
How many natural numbers are there which give a remainder of 31 when 1186 is divided by these natural numbers?
Correct: D
9. If division by n leaves remainder 31, then n must divide 1186 - 31 = 1155 and n must be greater than 31. Now 1155 = 3 x 5 x 7 x 11, which has 16 divisors. The divisors not exceeding 31 are 1, 3, 5, 7, 11, 15 and 21. Therefore eligible divisors = 16 - 7 = 9.
Q37·CSAT·2023·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A principal P becomes Q in 1 year compounded half-yearly with R% annual rate of interest. If the same principal P becomes Q in 1 year when compounded annually with S% annual rate of interest, then which one of the following is correct?
Correct: C
Half-yearly compounding at R% per annum gives Q = P(1 + R/200)^2. Annual compounding at S% gives Q = P(1 + S/100). Since both equal Q, (1 + R/200)^2 = 1 + S/100, so S = R + R^2/400 > R. Hence R < S.
Q38·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
Along with sustainable lifestyles, climate justice is regarded as a significant principle in environmental parlance. Both the principles have bearings on political and economic choices of the nation. So far, in our climate change summits or compacts, both the principles have eluded consensus among nations. Justice, in the judicial sense, is well defined. However, in the context of climate change, it has scientific as well as socio-political connotations. The crucial question in the next few years will be how resources, technologies and regulations are used to support the victims of climate change. Justice in climate is not confined to actions relating to mitigation, but includes the wider notion of support for adaptation to climate change and compensation for loss and damage. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage?
Correct: A
The passage says climate justice and sustainable lifestyles have so far eluded consensus in climate summits, and that climate justice spans mitigation, adaptation and compensation for loss and damage. The crucial message is that climate justice should be ingrained in detail in the rules of all the new climate compacts and agreements.
Q39·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
A global analysis of nitrogen use efficiency, a measure of the amount of nitrogen a plant takes in to grow versus what is left behind as pollution, says that using too much fertilizers will lead to increased pollution of waterways and the air. Currently, the global average for nitrogen use efficiency is approximately 0.4, meaning 40 per cent of the total nitrogen added to cropland goes into the harvested crop while 60 per cent is lost to the environment. More than half of the world's population is nourished by food grown with fertilizers containing synthetic nitrogen, which is needed to produce high crop yields. Plants take the nitrogen they need to grow, and the excess is left in the ground, water and air. This results in significant emissions of nitrous oxide, a potent greenhouse and ozone depleting gas, and other forms of nitrogen pollution, including eutrophication of lakes and rivers and contamination of river water. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message implied by the passage?
Correct: A
The passage shows that with global nitrogen use efficiency around 0.4, 60 per cent of nitrogen added to cropland is lost to the environment, causing nitrous oxide emissions, eutrophication and water contamination - yet synthetic nitrogen feeds half the world. The crucial message is that an enhanced efficiency of nitrogen use is imperative for both food production and environment.
Q40·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
Scientists studied the vernal window, the transition period from winter to the growing season. They found that warmer winters with less snow resulted in a longer lag time between spring events and a more protracted vernal window. This change in the spring timetable has ecological, social and economic consequences for agriculture, fisheries and tourism. As the ice melts earlier, the birds don't return, causing a delay, or lengthening, in springtime ecological events. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Global warming is causing spring to come early and for longer durations. 2. Early spring and longer period of spring is not good for bird populations. Which of the above assumptions is/are correct?
Correct: A
Assumption 1 is valid: warmer winters with less snow lengthen the lag between spring events and protract the vernal window - global warming is causing spring to come early and for longer durations. Assumption 2 is not: the passage notes a delay in ecological events but does not conclude that this is bad for bird populations.
Q41·CSAT·2023·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Choose the group which is different from the others:
Correct: D
Group D is 83, 89, 91, 97: the number 91 is composite (7 x 13), while every number in the other groups is prime. Hence D is the group that is different from the others.
Q42·CSAT·2023·Logical Reasoning
Consider the following including the Question and the Statements: There are 5 members A, B, C, D, E in a family. Question: What is the relation of E to B? Statement-1: A and B are a married couple. Statement-2: D is the father of C. Statement-3: E is D's son. Statement-4: A and C are sisters. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and Statements?
Correct: C
A and B are a married couple; A and C are sisters; D is the father of C, hence also of A; E is D's son, so E is A's brother. Since B is married to A, E is B's brother-in-law. All four statements together establish the relation.
Q43·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following statements: 1. A is older than B. 2. C and D are of the same age. 3. E is the youngest. 4. F is younger than D. 5. F is older than A. How many statements given above are required to determine the oldest person/persons?
Correct: D
All five. Statements 1, 4 and 5 give D older than F, F older than A, and A older than B. Statement 2 says C and D are of the same age, so C and D are jointly ahead of F, A and B. But E is still unplaced unless statement 3 is used. Statement 3 says E is the youngest, which rules out E as older than C and D. Therefore all five statements are required to determine the oldest persons: C and D.
Q44·CSAT·2023·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If 'ZERO' is written as 'CHUR', then how is 'PLAYER' written?
Correct: D
Each letter of ZERO advances by 3 in the alphabet: Z to C, E to H, R to U, O to R. Applying the same shift to PLAYER: P to S, L to O, A to D, Y to B, E to H, R to U, giving SODBHU.
Q45·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
A box contains 14 black balls, 20 blue balls, 26 green balls, 28 yellow balls, 38 red balls and 54 white balls. Consider the following statements: 1. The smallest number n such that any n balls drawn from the box randomly must contain one full group of at least one colour is 175. 2. The smallest number m such that any m balls drawn from the box randomly must contain at least one ball of each colour is 167. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct: C
Both 1 and 2. Total balls = 14+20+26+28+38+54 = 180. For statement 1, to avoid getting a full group of any colour, one can draw at most one less than every colour count: 13+19+25+27+37+53 = 174. The next draw, i.e. 175, must complete all balls of at least one colour. Statement 1 is correct. For statement 2, to avoid at least one ball of each colour, one can omit the smallest colour group of 14 balls and draw the other 166 balls. The next draw, i.e. 167, must include every colour. Statement 2 is also correct.
Q46·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
Food consumption patterns have changed substantially in India over the past few decades. This has resulted in the disappearance of many nutritious foods such as millets. While food grain production has increased over five times since independence, it has not sufficiently addressed the issue of malnutrition. For long, the agriculture sector focused on increasing food production particularly staples, which led to lower production and consumption of indigenous traditional crops/grains, fruits and other vegetables, impacting food and nutrition security in the process. Further, intensive, monoculture agriculture practices can perpetuate the food and nutrition security problem by degrading the quality of land, water and food derived through them. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. To implement the Sustainable Development Goals and to achieve zero-hunger goal, monoculture agriculture practices are inevitable even if they do not address malnutrition. 2. Dependence on a few crops has negative consequences for human health and the ecosystem. 3. Government policies regarding food planning need to incorporate nutritional security. 4. For the present monoculture agriculture practices, farmers receive subsidies in various ways and government offers remunerative prices for grains and therefore they do not tend to consider crop diversity. Which of the above assumptions are valid?
Correct: B
Assumption 2 is valid: dependence on a few crops degrades land, water and food quality - negative consequences for human health and the ecosystem. Assumption 3 is valid: since increased grain production has not addressed malnutrition, government food policies need to incorporate nutritional security. Assumptions 1 and 4 are not supported.
Q47·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
Correct: C
The passage says the young, ill-regulated organic industry leaves farmers and consumers confused, with farmyard manure possibly containing toxins and Datura sprays needing precise dosing. The practical message is that in India farmers need to be guided and helped to make their organic farming sustainable.
Q48·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
There is a claim that organic farming is inherently safer and healthier. The reality is that because the organic farming industry is still young and not well-regulated in India, farmers and consumers, alike, are not only confused about what products are best for them, but sometimes use products in ways that could harm them as well. For example, since organic fertilizers are difficult to obtain on a large scale in India, farmers often use farmyard manure, which may contain toxic chemicals and heavy metals. Certain plant sprays, such as Datura flower and leaf spray, have an element called atropine. If it is not applied in the right dose, it can act on the nervous system of the consumer. Unfortunately, how much and when to use it are not well-researched or regulated issues. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Organic farming is inherently unsafe for both farmers and consumers. 2. Farmers and consumers need to be educated about eco-friendly food. Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?
Correct: B
Assumption 1 overstates: the passage does not say organic farming is inherently unsafe. Assumption 2 is valid: since farmers and consumers are confused about which products are best and how to use them safely, both need to be educated about eco-friendly food.
Q49·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal. Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and the rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill. Which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value. The biodegradable component of India's municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and biomethanation offers a major solution for processing this. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
Correct: C
The passage says waste-to-energy ideally fits in the chain after segregation of wet waste from the rest, and that the appropriate technology depends on the biodegradable versus non-biodegradable composition. Hence segregation of municipal solid waste is the first step in ensuring the success of waste-to-energy plants.
Q50·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
In India, the segregation of municipal waste at source is rare. Recycling is mostly with the informal sector. More than three-fourths of the municipal budget goes into collection and transportation, which leaves very little for processing/resource recovery and disposal. Where does waste-to-energy fit into all this? Ideally it fits in the chain after segregation (between wet waste and the rest), collection, recycling, and before getting to the landfill. Which technology is most appropriate in converting waste to energy depends on what is in the waste (that is biodegradable versus non-biodegradable component) and its calorific value. The biodegradable component of India's municipal solid waste is a little over 50 per cent, and biomethanation offers a major solution for processing this. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Collection, processing and segregation of municipal waste should be with government agencies. 2. Resource recovery and recycling require technological inputs that can be best handled by private sector enterprises. Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?
Correct: D
Assumption 1 is not supported: the passage does not say waste collection, processing and segregation should be with government agencies. Assumption 2 is not supported either: it never says resource recovery is best handled by the private sector. Hence neither is correct.
Q51·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
ABCD is a square. One point on each of AB and CD; and two distinct points on each of BC and DA are chosen. How many distinct triangles can be drawn using any three points as vertices out of these six points?
Correct: C
No three of the six chosen points are collinear, because at most two points lie on any one side of the square. Hence every choice of 3 points forms a distinct triangle: C(6,3) = 20.
Q52·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the sum of all digits which appear in all the integers from 10 to 100?
Correct: B
856. From 10 to 99, each digit 0-9 appears 9 times in the tens place and 9 times in the units place. Sum = 18 x (0+1+.+9) = 18 x 45 = 810. Adding 100 contributes 1 more. If the question includes both digits across the written integers as extracted, the keyed total is 856; this row should be source-checked because OCR/extraction may have dropped part of the original condition.
Q53·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
Each digit of a 9-digit number is 1. It is multiplied by itself. What is the sum of the digits of the resulting number?
Correct: C
81. The number is 111111111. Its square is 12345678987654321, whose digit sum is 1+2+3+4+5+6+7+8+9+8+7+6+5+4+3+2+1 = 81.
Q54·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
A number N is formed by writing 9 for 99 times. What is the remainder if N is divided by 13?
Correct: A
11. The number made by writing 9 ninety-nine times is 10^99 - 1. Work modulo 13. Since 10^3 = 1000, and 1000 leaves remainder 12, we have 10^3 = -1 modulo 13. Therefore 10^99 = (10^3)^33 = (-1)^33 = -1 modulo 13. Hence 10^99 - 1 = -2, which is congruent to 11 modulo 13.
Q55·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
If p, q, r and s are distinct single digit positive numbers, then what is the greatest value of (p + q)(r + s)?
Correct: B
With distinct single-digit positive numbers, the largest product comes from splitting the digits into two pairs with sums as close as possible: (9 + 6)(8 + 7) = 15 x 15 = 225. This exceeds (9 + 7)(8 + 6) = 224 and (9 + 8)(7 + 6) = 221. Hence the greatest value is 225.
Q56·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
Let x be a positive integer such that 7x + 96 is divisible by x. How many values of x are possible?
Correct: C
12. The condition says 7x + 96 is divisible by x. Since 7x is already divisible by x, this is equivalent to 96 being divisible by x. Therefore x can be any positive divisor of 96. Since 96 = 2^5 x 3, the number of divisors is (5+1)(1+1)=12.
Q57·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
If 7 0 9 ÷ 10 = 8, 9 0 11 + 30 = 5, 11 + 17 ÷ 21 = 13, what is the value of 23 ÷ 4 @ 15?
Correct: A
6. The operation shown is: add the three numbers and then add the digits of that sum once. Check: 7+9+10 = 26 and 2+6 = 8; 9+11+30 = 50 and 5+0 = 5; 11+17+21 = 49 and 4+9 = 13. Therefore 23+4+15 = 42, and 4+2 = 6.
Q58·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
Elephants are landscape architects, creating clearings in the forest, preventing overgrowth of certain plant species and allowing space for the regeneration of others, which in turn provide sustenance to other herbivorous animals. Elephants eat plants, fruits and seeds, propagating the seeds when they defecate in other places as they travel. Elephant dung provides nourishment to plants and animals and acts as a breeding ground for insects. In times of drought, they access water by digging holes which benefits other wildlife. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be drawn from the passage?
Correct: B
The passage shows elephants creating clearings for regeneration, dispersing seeds as they travel and providing dung that nourishes plants and animals - benefits that cascade across the ecosystem. Elephants are keystone species and they benefit biodiversity.
Q59·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
Good corporate governance structures encourage companies to provide accountability and control. A fundamental reason why corporate governance has moved onto the economic and political agenda worldwide has been the rapid growth in international capital markets. Effective corporate governance enhances access to external financing by firms, leading to greater investment, higher growth and employment. Investors look to place their funds where the standards of disclosure, of timely and accurate financial reporting, and of equal treatment to all stakeholders are met. Question: Which of the following statements best reflects the logical inference from the passage given above?
Correct: B
The passage says effective corporate governance enhances access to external financing, leading to greater investment, growth and employment. The inference is that good corporate governance improves the credibility of the firms.
Q60·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
To tackle the problem of pollution in cities, policy makers think that drastic actions like temporary use of odd-even number scheme for vehicles, closing schools, factories, construction activities, and banning the use of certain type of vehicles are a way forward. Even then the air is not clean. Vehicles more than 15 years old comprise one percent of the total; and taking them off the road will not make any difference. Banning certain fuels and car types arbitrarily is not proper. Diesel engines produce more PM 2.5 and less CO2 than petrol or CNG engines. On the other hand, both diesel and CNG engines produce more NOx than petrol engines. No one has measured the amount of NOx that CNG engines are emitting. Arbitrary bans on vehicles that have passed mandated fitness tests and periodic pollution tests are unfair. What is needed is the scientific and reliable information about the source of pollutants on a continuing basis and the technologies that will work to reduce pollution from them. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational implication conveyed by the passage?
Correct: B
The passage shows that drastic actions - odd-even schemes, arbitrary bans - have not cleaned the air, and that what is needed is scientific, reliable information about pollutant sources and the technologies that reduce them. The implication is that knee-jerk reactions cannot solve the problem of pollution but an evidence-based approach will be more effective.
Q61·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
A, B, C working independently can do a piece of work in 8, 16 and 12 days respectively. A alone works on Monday, B alone works on Tuesday, C alone works on Wednesday; A alone, again works on Thursday and so on. Consider the following statements: 1. The work will be finished on Thursday. 2. The work will be finished in 10 days. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct: A
1 only. A, B and C work at rates 1/8, 1/16 and 1/12 of the work per day. In each 3-day cycle they complete 1/8 + 1/16 + 1/12 = 13/48 of the work. After 9 days, 39/48 is done. On day 10, A adds 1/8 = 6/48, making 45/48. On day 11, B adds 1/16 = 3/48, completing the work. Day 11 falls on Thursday, so statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is not.
Q62·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
How many distinct 8-digit numbers can be formed by rearranging the digits of the number 11223344 such that odd digits occupy odd positions and even digits occupy even positions?
Correct: C
36. Odd positions must be occupied by odd digits 1,1,3,3. They can be arranged in 4!/(2!2!) = 6 ways. Even positions must be occupied by even digits 2,2,4,4, also in 6 ways. Total arrangements = 6 x 6 = 36.
Q63·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
125 identical cubes are arranged in the form of a cubical block. How many cubes are surrounded by other cubes from each side?
Correct: A
27. 125 identical cubes form a 5 x 5 x 5 cubical block. Cubes surrounded on every side are the interior cubes after removing the outer layer. Interior count = (5-2)^3 = 3^3 = 27.
Q64·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
For any choices of values of X, Y and Z, the 6-digit number of the form XYZXYZ is divisible by:
Correct: D
7, 11 and 13. A number of the form XYZXYZ equals 1000 x XYZ + XYZ = 1001 x XYZ. Since 1001 = 7 x 11 x 13, every such number is divisible by 7, 11 and 13.
Q65·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
A 3-digit number ABC, on multiplication with D gives 37DD where A, B, C and D are different non-zero digits. What is the value of A+ B + C?
Correct: A
18. The equation is ABC x D = 37DD. Testing non-zero distinct digits column-wise gives ABC = 936 and D = 4, because 936 x 4 = 3744. Therefore A+B+C = 9+3+6 = 18.
Q66·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following in respect of prime number p and composite number c. 1. p + c can be even. 2. 2p + c can be odd. 3. pc can be odd. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct: D
1, 2 and 3. Statement 1 can be true: an odd prime plus an odd composite number is even, e.g. 3+9=12. Statement 2 can be true: 2p is even, and adding an odd composite c makes it odd, e.g. 2x3+9=15. Statement 3 can be true: an odd prime times an odd composite is odd, e.g. 3x9=27. Hence all three statements are correct.
Q67·CSAT·2023·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Three of the five positive integers p, q, r, s, t are even and two of them are odd (not necessarily in order). Consider the following 1. p+q+r -s-t is definitely even. 2. 2p + q + 2r - 2s + t is definitely odd. Which of the above statements is/are correct??
Correct: A
p and q are odd, r and s are even. Statement 1: p + q + r - s - t equals the total of three evens and two odds (even) minus 2(s + t), which is even - so statement 1 is definitely correct. Statement 2: 2p + q + 2r - 2s + t has parity q + t, which depends on whether q and t are odd or even, so it is not definitely odd. Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Q68·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
Environmental problems cause health problems. Substantial changes in lifestyle can reduce environmental or health problems, but this idea appears almost impossible to adopt. With environmental problems, individual efforts can be perceived as having a negligible effect and therefore lead to inertia. With health, on the other hand, individual choices can make the difference between life and death, literally. And yet, barring a few, there seems to be the same collective lethargy towards making their choices. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
Correct: A
The passage contrasts environmental problems, where individual effort feels negligible and breeds inertia, with health, where individual choices can decide life and death - and yet people show collective lethargy toward making such choices. The implied tendency is that we are likely to spend more money on cure than prevention.
Q69·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
Environmental problems cause health problems. Substantial changes in lifestyle can reduce environmental or health problems, but this idea appears almost impossible to adopt. With environmental problems, individual efforts can be perceived as having a negligible effect and therefore lead to inertia. With health, on the other hand, individual choices can make the difference between life and death, literally. And yet, barring a few, there seems to be the same collective lethargy towards making their choices. Question: Which one of the following statements best implies the most rational assumption that can be made from the passage?
Correct: A
The passage contrasts environmental problems, where individual effort feels negligible and breeds inertia, with health, where individual choices can decide life and death - and yet people show collective lethargy toward making such choices. The implied tendency is that we are likely to spend more money on cure than prevention.
Q70·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
In India, a majority of farmers are marginal and small, less educated and possess low adaptive capabilities to climate change, perhaps because of credit and other constraints. So, one cannot expect autonomous adaptation to climate change. Even if it was possible, it would not be sufficient to offset losses from climate change. To deal with this, adaptation to climate change is paramount, alongside a fast mitigation response. Another solution is to have a planned or policy-driven adaptation, which would require the government to come up with policy recommendations. Perception is a necessary pre-requisite for adaptation. Whether farmers are adapting agricultural practices to climate change depends on whether they perceive it or not. However, this is not always enough for adaptation. It is important how a farmer perceives the risks associated with climate change. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the crucial message conveyed by the author of the passage?
Correct: C
The passage says farmers' low adaptive capabilities, credit constraints and perceptions of risk determine whether they adapt to climate change - perception is a necessary pre-requisite for adaptation, and how a farmer perceives the risks is important. The message is that risk perceptions of farmers are important for motivating them for taking adaptation decisions.
Q71·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
D is a 3-digit number such that the ratio of the number to the sum of its digits is least. What is the difference between the digit at the hundred's place and the digit at the unit's place of D?
Correct: C
8. To minimise N/(sum of digits), a three-digit number must be as small as possible while keeping digit sum large. Checking the 100s, 199 gives ratio 199/(1+9+9)=199/19, which is lower than alternatives such as 189/18 and any 200-or-higher number with comparable digit sum. Thus D = 199, and the difference between the hundreds digit and units digit is 9 - 1 = 8.
Q72·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
If ABC and DEF are both 3-digit numbers such that A, B, C, D, E and F are distinct non-zero digits such that ABC + DEF = 1111, then what is the value of A+B+C+D+E+F?
Correct: D
31. Add ABC and DEF column-wise to get 1111. Since both are three-digit numbers, the thousands digit 1 comes from a carry out of the hundreds column. With six distinct non-zero digits satisfying the column carries, brute column checking gives the same digit-sum in every valid case: A+B+C+D+E+F = 31.
Q73·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the unit digit in the expansion of (57242)^(9 x 7 x 5 x 3 x 1)?
Correct: A
2. Only the unit digit of the base matters. The base 57242 has unit digit 2. The exponent is 9 x 7 x 5 x 3 x 1 = 945. Powers of 2 have the unit-digit cycle 2, 4, 8, 6. Since 945 leaves remainder 1 when divided by 4, the unit digit is the first digit in the cycle, i.e. 2.
Q74·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the remainder when 85 × 87 × 89 × 91 × 95 × 96 is divided by 100?
Correct: A
0. For division by 100, only the last two digits matter. The product contains 85 and 96. Since 85 has a factor 5 and 96 contributes enough powers of 2, together with 95 the product contains factors making it divisible by 100. Therefore the remainder is 0.
Q75·CSAT·2023·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
There are four letters and four envelopes and exactly one letter is to be put in exactly one envelope with the correct address. If the letters are randomly inserted into the envelopes, then consider the following statements: 1. It is possible that exactly one letter goes into an incorrect envelope. 2. There are only six ways in which only two letters can go into the correct envelopes. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct: B
If exactly one letter went into an incorrect envelope, the other three would be correct, which would force the fourth letter into its correct envelope too - impossible. So statement 1 is not correct. For exactly two letters in correct envelopes: choose the two correct envelopes in C(4,2) = 6 ways, and the remaining two letters must be swapped, giving 6 ways in all. Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Q76·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
In how many ways can a batsman score exactly 25 runs by scoring single runs, fours and sixes only, irrespective of the sequence of scoring shots?
Correct: B
19. Since sequence does not matter, count non-negative solutions of 4f + 6s + 1r = 25, where f is the number of fours, s the number of sixes and r the number of singles. For s=0, f can be 0 to 6: 7 ways. For s=1, f can be 0 to 4: 5 ways. For s=2, f can be 0 to 3: 4 ways. For s=3, f can be 0 to 1: 2 ways. For s=4, f=0: 1 way. Total = 7+5+4+2+1 = 19.
Q77·CSAT·2023·Quantitative Aptitude
Raj has ten pairs of red, nine pairs of white and eight pairs of black shoes in a box. If he randomly picks shoes one by one (without replacement) from the box to get a red pair of shoes to wear, what is the maximum number of attempts he has to make?
Correct: D
There are 20 red shoes (10 pairs), 18 white and 16 black. To avoid completing a red pair, one can pick at most one shoe from each red pair (10 shoes) along with all 34 non-red shoes: 44 picks without a red pair. The 45th pick must complete a red pair. Hence the maximum number of attempts is 45.
Q78·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
In India, a majority of farmers are marginal and small, less educated and possess low adaptive capabilities to climate change, perhaps because of credit and other constraints. So, one cannot expect autonomous adaptation to climate change. Even if it was possible, it would not be sufficient to offset losses from climate change. To deal with this, adaptation to climate change is paramount, alongside a fast mitigation response. Another solution is to have a planned or policy-driven adaptation, which would require the government to come up with policy recommendations. Perception is a necessary pre-requisite for adaptation. Whether farmers are adapting agricultural practices to climate change depends on whether they perceive it or not. However, this is not always enough for adaptation. It is important how a farmer perceives the risks associated with climate change. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage?
Correct: C
The passage says farmers' low adaptive capabilities, credit constraints and perceptions of risk determine whether they adapt to climate change - perception is a necessary pre-requisite for adaptation, and how a farmer perceives the risks is important. The message is that risk perceptions of farmers are important for motivating them for taking adaptation decisions.
Q79·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
More than half of Indian women and almost a quarter of Indian men of working age suffer from anaemia. According to studies, they are anywhere from 5-15% less productive than they could be, as a result thereof. India also has the largest tuberculosis burden in the world, costing 170 million workdays to the country annually. But what is just as important as lost productivity now is lost potential in the future. It is becoming increasingly clear that on many measures of cognitive ability, malnourished Indian children perform two or three times worse than their adequately nourished peers. For an economy that will be more dependent on highly skilled workers, this poses a significant challenge. And it is one that really should be addressed given India's demographic outlook. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects what is implied by the passage?
Correct: D
The passage quantifies the productivity lost to anaemia and tuberculosis - 170 million workdays a year - and stresses the lost potential of the workforce. The message is that for the rapid economic growth envisaged, attention should be paid to the health and nutrition of the people.
Q80·CSAT·2023·Reading Comprehension
We often hear about conflicts among different States in India over river waters. Of the 20 major river systems, 14 are already water-stressed; 75% of the population lives in water-stressed regions, a third of whom live in water-scarce areas. Climate change, the demands of rising population and the need for agriculture to keep pace, and increased rate of urbanization and industrialization will exacerbate water stress. According to the Constitution of India, water is a State subject and not that of the Union, except for regulation of inter-State rivers. Key to ensuring balance between competing demands of various stakeholders is a basin-based approach to allocate water amongst constituent regions and States. Allocating fair share of water to them requires assessments based on objective criteria, such as specificities of the river basin, size of dependent population, existing water use and demand, efficiency of use, projected future use, etc. while ensuring the environmental needs of the river and aquifers. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most rational, practical and immediate action required to ensure fair and equitable allocation of water to different stakeholders?
Correct: A
The passage says water is a State subject under the Constitution except for inter-State rivers, and that fair allocation requires a basin-based approach with objective criteria. The most rational, practical and immediate action is to make a national, pragmatic, legal and policy framework for water allocation.