79 CSAT questions from the official UPSC 2024 Prelims paper, each with the verified answer key and an explanation.
1–79 of 79
Q1·CSAT·2024
In some code, letters P, Q, R, S, T represent numbers 4, 5, 10, 12, 15. It is not known which letter represents which number. If Q-S = 2S and T = R+S +3, then what is the value of P+R-T?
Correct: B
Q − S = 2S gives Q = 3S. Among the numbers 4, 5, 10, 12 and 15, only S = 5 with Q = 15 satisfies this. Next, T = R + S + 3 = R + 8; trying the remaining numbers {4, 10, 12}, only R = 4 gives T = 12, which is valid. The leftover number is P = 10. Therefore P + R − T = 10 + 4 − 12 = 2.
Q2·CSAT·2024
What will come in place of * in the sequence 3, 14, 39, 84, *, 258?
Correct: B
The successive differences are 11, 25, 45, ..., and these differences grow by 14, 20, 26, 32. So the differences are 11, 25, 45, 71, 103 and the sequence is 3, 14, 39, 84, 155, 258. Hence * = 155.
Q3·CSAT·2024
If in a certain code, 'POT' is written as ATOP and 'TRAP' is written as APART, then how is 'ARENA' written in that code?
Correct: D
The code writes the word in reverse and adds A at the beginning: POT reversed is TOP, giving ATOP; TRAP reversed is PART, giving APART. Hence ARENA reversed is ANERA, giving AANERA.
Q4·CSAT·2024
If in a certain code, 'ABCD' is written as 24 and 'EFGH' is written as 1680, then how is IJKL' written in that code?
Correct: A
The code multiplies the positions of the letters: A(1) x B(2) x C(3) x D(4) = 24, and E x F x G x H = 5 x 6 x 7 x 8 = 1680. Hence IJKL = 9 x 10 x 11 x 12 = 11880.
Q5·CSAT·2024
If P means 'greater than ( > )'; Q means 'less than ( < )'; R means 'not greater than ( <= )'; S means 'not less than ( >= )' and T means 'equal to ( = )', then consider the following statements: 1. If 2x(S)3y and 3x(T)4z, then 9y(P)8z. 2. If x(Q)2y and y(R)z, then x(R)z. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct: B
2x >= 3y and 3x = 4z give 9y <= 8z, so 9y > 8z is false. But x < y and y <= z imply x < z, i.e. x is not greater than z (x R z) is true. Only statement 2 is correct.
Q6·CSAT·2024
If a+b means a -b; a -b means a x b; ax b means a + b; a+ b means a+b, then what is the value of 10 + 30 - 100 50 + 25? (Operations are to be replaced simultaneously)
Correct: D
-25. Replace the symbols as given: + becomes -, - becomes x, x becomes /, and / becomes +. Thus 10 + 30 - 100 x 50 / 25 becomes 10 - 30 x 100 / 50 + 25. Apply normal precedence: 30 x 100 / 50 = 60. So the value is 10 - 60 + 25 = -25.
Q7·CSAT·2024
A Main Statement is followed by four Statements labelled P, Q, R and S. Choose the ordered pair of the Statements where the first Statement implies the second, and the two Statements are logically consistent with the Main Statement. Main Statement Pradeep becomes either a Director or a Producer. Statement P: Pradeep is a Director. Statement Q: Pradeep is a Producer. Statement R: Pradeep is not a Director. Statement S: Pradeep is not a Producer. Select the correct answer.
Correct: C
The main statement says Pradeep becomes either a Director or a Producer. Statement S (not a Producer) forces him to be a Director, so SP is consistent. Statement R (not a Director) forces him to be a Producer, so RQ is consistent. Hence both SP and RQ.
Q8·CSAT·2024
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. Age of each of P and Q is less than 100 years but more than 10 years. If you interchange the digits of the age of P, the number represents the age of Q. Question What is the difference of their ages? Statement-I: The age of P is greater than the age of Q. Statement-II The sum of their ages is 11/6 times their difference. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: A
Let P's age be 10a + b and Q's be 10b + a. Statement I (P > Q) gives a > b but not the difference, so it is not sufficient. Statement II: sum/difference = 11/6 gives 11(a + b) = (11/6) x 9(a - b), i.e., a + b = (3/2)(a - b), so a = 5b. With digits, b = 1 and a = 5, giving ages 51 and 15 and difference 36. Hence one of the statements alone (Statement II) is sufficient.
Q9·CSAT·2024
The flower was not invented to please us. It flaunted its petals and spread its perfume to attract an insect. The insect carries the pollen from flower to flower SO that pollen is not carried away by wind and thus not wasted. What we call a flower's beauty is merely a by-product and a human invention. The perfume is not there to please us, it pleases us because it is there and we have been conditioned to it. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. The author of the passage believes that flowers are creations of Nature's luxury. 2. The author of the passage does not believe in the usefulness of flowers except as things of beauty. Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
Correct: D
Assumption 1 is not valid: the passage says the flower flaunts its petals and perfume to attract insects for pollination, not as a luxury of Nature. Assumption 2 is not valid either: the flower's real usefulness is attracting pollinators - its beauty is called a by-product and a human invention. Hence neither is valid.
Q10·CSAT·2024
Unlike religion and science, poetry does not posit or expect any belief in absolute truths. Those forces or individuals who claim to have absolute truths in their grasp tend to turn dictatorial and tyrannical. Truth usually does not admit any contradictions or imperfections. It is unitarian. It is, therefore, not of much use for poetry. Poetry abides by the plurality of life and existence. Perhaps poetry follows reality which is plural, anachronistic, full of contradictions. Against the tyranny of truth, poetry remains a partisan of democratic reality. Against the arrogance of power, wealth and hierarchy, poetry proposes both humility and defiance. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the above passage?
Correct: D
The passage says poetry abides by the plurality of life and existence, while those who claim absolute truths turn dictatorial and tyrannical. In a world marked by tyranny and bigotry, poetry - which does not expect belief in absolute truths - becomes a form of dynamic resistance.
Q11·CSAT·2024
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. P, Q, R and S appeared in a test. Question Has P scored more marks than Q? Statement-I: The sum of the marks scored by P and Q is equal to the sum of the marks scored by R and S. Statement-II The sum of the marks scored by P and S is more than the sum of the marks scored by Q and R. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
Statement I: P + Q = R + S. Statement II: P + S > Q + R. From I and II we can only derive relationships among the four totals, not the individual comparison of P and Q; adding the inequalities does not isolate P > Q or Q > P. The question cannot be answered even with both statements.
Q12·CSAT·2024
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. A person buys three articles p, q and r for Rs. 50. The price of the article q is 16, which is the least. Question: What is the price of the article p? Statement-I: The cost of p is not more than that of r. Statement-II: The cost of r is not more than that of p. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: C
The three articles cost Rs. 50, with q = Rs. 16, so p + r = 34. Statement I alone allows p <= 17; Statement II alone allows p >= 17. Together they force p = 17. Both statements are needed, and together they answer the question.
Q13·CSAT·2024
A Question is given followed by two Statements and II. Consider the Question and the Statements. There are three distinct prime numbers whose sum is a prime number. Question What are those three numbers? Statement-I: Their sum is less than 23. Statement-II: One of the numbers is 5. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: A
Checking distinct-prime triples whose sum is a prime less than 23: any triple containing 2 has an even sum greater than 2 (composite), and the only remaining candidate is (3, 5, 11) with sum 19, which is prime. So Statement I alone identifies the numbers. Statement II (one number is 5) is not unique. Hence one of the statements alone is sufficient.
Q14·CSAT·2024
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. Question If the average marks in a class are 60, then what is the number of students in the class? Statement-I The highest marks in the class are 70 and the lowest marks are 50. Statement-II Exclusion of highest and lowest marks from the class does not change the average. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
Statement I gives only the highest and lowest marks, and Statement II says their removal does not change the average. This does not determine how many students there are, since the count of the remaining students is unknown. Hence the question cannot be answered even using both statements together.
Q15·CSAT·2024
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. A certain amount was distributed among X, Y and Z. Question Who received the least amount? Statement-I X received 4/5 of what Y and Z together received. Statement-II: Y received 2/7 of what X and Z together received. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: C
Statement I: X = 4/5 (Y + Z). Statement II: Y = 2/7 (X + Z). Solving together: from I, Z = (5X - 4Y)/4; substituting into II gives 7Y = 2X + (5X - 4Y)/2, i.e. 18Y = 9X, so X = 2Y, and then Z = 1.5Y. So Y received the least. Both statements together are required.
Q16·CSAT·2024
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. Question What are the unique values of x and y, where x, y are distinct natural numbers? Statement-I: x /y is odd. Statement-II: xy = 12 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: C
From Statement II, the possible pairs are (1,12), (2,6) and (3,4). Statement I requires x/y to be an odd integer; only (6,2) satisfies this because 6/2 = 3 is odd. Hence both statements together determine x = 6 and y = 2.
Q17·CSAT·2024
Green growth involves rethinking growth strategies with regard to their impacts on environmental sustainability and the environmental resources available to poor and vulnerable groups. In rethinking growth, we need to focus on the current reality of a resource-constrained world. Resource intensive and, in particular, energy intensive processes will need to make way for more efficient and resource frugal development strategies if we are to avoid an economic dead end or a world in which only a small elite is able to enjoy affluence in the midst of a sea of poverty. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the above passage?
Correct: C
The passage says growth strategies must be rethought for a resource-constrained world, with resource- and energy-intensive processes making way for efficient, resource-frugal ones that protect the environment available to the poor and vulnerable. The message is that maintaining high environmental standards is now a prerequisite for achieving steady, sufficient and inclusive growth.
Q18·CSAT·2024
Now-a-days there is a growing trend to use interconnected home devices. As consumers network their homes increasingly, connected home device manufacturers and service providers will seek to overcome "thin profit margins" by gathering more and more of our personal data with or without our agreement - turning the home into a corporate storefront. Corporate marketers will have powerful incentives to observe consumer behaviour to understand the buying needs and preferences of the device owners. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message implied by the passage?
Correct: D
The passage warns that connected home device manufacturers and service providers will gather more personal data, with or without consent, turning the home into a corporate storefront. The clear implication is that interconnected devices can be at security risk and home users may have privacy risk.
Q19·CSAT·2024
In a robust democracy, reality, howsoever inconvenient it may be, finds its expression both in the speech of political leaders and the other social forms of assertion. The existence of the real has to be transparent, both through its circulation in and by the media as well as its argumentative articulation in deliberative democracy. A normatively responsible media through its communication effect has the responsibility to circulate the content of reality without distortion. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the above passage?
Correct: A
The passage says that in a robust democracy reality must find transparent expression through the media and deliberative articulation, with a normatively responsible media playing its role. The message is that responsible media should not distort the real in an ideal democracy.
Q20·CSAT·2024
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. Question: What is the time required to download the software? Statement-I: The size of the software is 12 megabytes. Statement-II: The transfer rate is 2.4 kilobytes per second. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: C
Time = size / rate. The size (12 MB = 12 x 1024 = 12,288 KB) comes from Statement I and the transfer rate (2.4 KB/s) from Statement II. Time = 12,288 / 2.4 = 5,120 seconds. Both statements together are needed to compute the download time.
Q21·CSAT·2024
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. Question What are the values of m and n, where m and n are natural numbers? Statement-I: m+n > mn and m > n. Statement-II The product of m and n is 24. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: C
Statement I (m + n > mn with m > n) forces n = 1, because for m > n >= 2 the product mn is at least m + n. But it leaves m free. Statement II gives the pairs (1,24), (2,12), (3,8), (4,6). Together, only (m, n) = (24, 1) satisfies both. Hence both statements together are sufficient.
Q22·CSAT·2024
A Statement is given followed by two Conclusions numbered I and Il. Consider the Statement and the Conclusions. Statement: India is the world's largest producer of milk. Conclusion-I: India is the world's largest exporter of milk. Conclusion-II India does not import milk. Which one of the following is correct?
Correct: D
India being the largest producer of milk does not imply that it is the largest exporter of milk (I), nor that it does not import milk (II). Hence neither conclusion follows.
Q23·CSAT·2024
A person walks 100 m Westward, then turns left and walks 100 m. He then takes 225 degree turn clockwise. In which direction is he walking now?
Correct: D
North-East. Starting westward, a left turn makes the person face south. From south, a 225 degree clockwise turn is the same as turning 180 degree to north and then 45 degree more to north-east. Therefore the final direction is North-East.
Q24·CSAT·2024
A person walks 100 m straight from his house, turns left and walks 100 m, again turns left and walks 300 m, then turns right and walks 100 m to reach his office. In which direction does he walk initially from his house if his office is exactly in the North-East direction?
Correct: C
Working backwards from an office in the North-East, take the initial direction as South: 100 m South, turn left (East) 100 m, turn left (North) 300 m, turn right (East) 100 m gives a net 200 m North and 200 m East - exactly North-East of the house. Hence he initially walked South.
Q25·CSAT·2024
Let p and q be positive integers satisfying p < q and p + q = k. What is the smallest value of k that does not determine p and q uniquely?
Correct: C
For k = 3, the pair is uniquely (1,2); for k = 4 it is uniquely (1,3). For k = 5, both (1,4) and (2,3) satisfy p < q and p + q = 5, so p and q are not uniquely determined. Hence the smallest such k is 5.
Q26·CSAT·2024
3^25 + 3^27 is divisible by which of the following numbers?
Correct: C
3^25 + 3^27 = 3^25(1 + 3^2) = 10 x 3^25, which is exactly divisible by 10.
Q27·CSAT·2024
Evolution has endowed caterpillars that feed on corn with a unique ability, they can induce the plant to turn off its defence against insect predators. This helps caterpillars to eat more and grow faster. The agent that causes this effect is the caterpillar's faeces or frass. The find could throw new light on compounds associated with plant response to pathogens like fungi or bacteria. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message conveyed by the passage?
Correct: C
The passage says caterpillar frass induces the plant to turn off its defence against pests, and that the find could throw light on compounds associated with plant response to pathogens. The practical implication is that this finding can help in the development of organic, ecologically sustainable pesticides.
Q28·CSAT·2024
Geographers analyzed 175 satellite images of ocean colour, which is an indicator of phytoplankton productivity at the ocean's surface, and found that giant icebergs are responsible for storing up to 20 percent of carbon in the Southern Ocean. The researchers discovered that melting water from giant icebergs which contains iron and other nutrients, supports hitherto unexpectedly high levels of phytoplankton growth. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Giant icebergs have a bearing on primary productivity and food chains of the Southern Ocean. 2. Melting of giant icebergs can produce climate change effects and impact world fisheries. Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
Correct: C
The passage says giant icebergs store up to 20 percent of carbon in the Southern Ocean (1) and that their meltwater, rich in iron and nutrients, supports unexpectedly high phytoplankton productivity (2). Both statements are supported by the passage.
Q29·CSAT·2024
When an international team of scientists pumped a carbon dioxide and water mix into underground basalt rocks, basic chemistry took over. The acidic mixture dissolved rocks' calcium and magnesium and formed limestone. Basically carbon dioxide is converted into stone, exclaimed the scientists. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical suggestion implied by the passage?
Correct: B
The experiment converted carbon dioxide into solid limestone inside basalt rocks - the carbon dioxide is literally converted into stone. The logical and practical suggestion is that this can be used as one of the methods of carbon sequestration.
Q30·CSAT·2024
The total cost of 4 oranges, 6 mangoes and 8 apples is equal to twice the total cost of 1 orange, 2 mangoes and 5 apples. Consider the following statements: 1. The total cost of 3 oranges, 5 mangoes and 9 apples is equal to the total cost of 4 oranges, 6 mangoes and 8 apples. 2. The total cost of one orange and one mango is equal to the cost of one apple. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct: C
Let orange, mango and apple cost o, m and a. 4o + 6m + 8a = 2(o + 2m + 5a) simplifies to 2o + 2m = 2a, i.e., o + m = a, so statement 2 is correct. Then 3o + 5m + 9a = 3o + 5m + 9(o + m) = 12o + 14m, and 4o + 6m + 8a = 4o + 6m + 8(o + m) = 12o + 14m, so statement 1 is also correct. Hence both statements are correct.
Q31·CSAT·2024
Three numbers x, y, Z are selected from the set of the first seven natural numbers such that x>2y> 3z. How many such distinct triplets (x, y, z) are possible?
Correct: D
Four triplets. The first seven natural numbers are 1 to 7. Since x > 2y > 3z, z must be small. If z = 1, then 2y > 3, so y can be 2 or 3. For y = 2, x > 4 gives x = 5, 6 or 7. For y = 3, x > 6 gives x = 7. If z >= 2, then 3z >= 6 and 2y must be greater than 6, forcing y >= 4 and x > 8, impossible in 1 to 7. Thus four triplets are possible: (5,2,1), (6,2,1), (7,2,1), (7,3,1).
Q32·CSAT·2024
If the sum of the two-digit numbers AB and CD is the three-digit number 1CE, where the letters A, B, C, D, E denote distinct digits, then what is the value of A?
Correct: D
Both A = 9 (e.g. 91 + 86 = 177) and A = 8 (e.g. 81 + 96 = 177) work with distinct digits, so the value of A cannot be determined uniquely.
Q33·CSAT·2024
A person buys three articles P, Q and R for 3,330. If P costs 25% more than R and R costs 20% more than Q, then what is the cost of P?
Correct: D
Let Q cost q. Then R costs 1.2q and P costs 1.25 x 1.2q = 1.5q. Total = q + 1.2q + 1.5q = 3.7q = 3330, so q = 900. Hence P costs 1.5 x 900 = Rs. 1,350.
Q34·CSAT·2024
What is the sum of the first 28 terms in the following sequence? 1, 1, 2, 1, 3, 2, 1, 4, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 2,...
Correct: B
The sequence consists of blocks 1; 1,2; 1,3,2; 1,4,3,2; ... where the k-th block sums to 1 + 2 + ... + k = k(k+1)/2. The first 28 terms are blocks 1 to 7, and their total is 1 + 3 + 6 + 10 + 15 + 21 + 28 = 84.
Q35·CSAT·2024
What is the number of fives used in numbering a 260-page book?
Correct: B
56. Count digit 5 in units and tens places from 1 to 260. Units place: 5, 15,., 255 gives 26 occurrences. Tens place: 50-59, 150-159 and 250-259 give 10 + 10 + 10 = 30 occurrences. Total = 26 + 30 = 56.
Q36·CSAT·2024
When a child reaches adolescence, there is apt to be a conflict between the parents and the child, since the latter considers himself to be by now quite capable of managing his own affairs, while the former are filled with parental solicitude, which is often a disguise for love of power. Parents consider, usually, that the various moral problems which arise in adolescence are peculiarly their province. The opinions they express, however, are so dogmatic that the young seldom confide in them, and usually go their own way in secret. Question: W hich one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the above passage?
Correct: A
The passage says parents' solicitude is often a disguise for love of power, that they consider adolescent moral problems their province, and that they are so dogmatic the young seldom confide in them. The implication is that parents in general may not be of much help when children are on their way to becoming adults.
Q37·CSAT·2024
When a child reaches adolescence, there is apt to be a conflict between the parents and the child, since the latter considers himself to be by now quite capable of managing his own affairs, while the former are filled with parental solicitude, which is often a disguise for love of power. Parents consider, usually, that the various moral problems which arise in adolescence are peculiarly their province. The opinions they express, however, are so dogmatic that the young seldom confide in them, and usually go their own way in secret. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. The adolescent does not feel comfortable with his parents because they tend to be dominating and assertive. 2. The adolescent of modern times does not have much respect for parents. Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
Correct: A
Assumption 1 is valid: parental solicitude is called a disguise for love of power, and parents are so dogmatic that the young seldom confide in them - the adolescent feels uncomfortable because parents tend to be dominating and assertive. Assumption 2 is not: the passage says nothing about the adolescent's respect for parents.
Q38·CSAT·2024
Conventional classrooms, by emphasizing fixed duration over learning effectiveness, resign themselves to variable outcomes. The tyranny of the classroom is that every learner is subjected to the same set of lectures in the same way for the same duration. In the end, a few learners shine, some survive, and the rest are left behind. After the fixed duration, the classroom model moves on, with not a thought spared for those left behind. This is how we end up with 10 percent employability in our graduates after a decade and a half of formal education. Repeating the ineffectual script in the realm of skill education will not produce different results. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. As a large number of workers in our country are employed in unorganized sector, India does not need to change its present conventional classroom system of education. 2. Even with its present conventional classroom system of education, India produces sufficient number of skilled workers to fully realize the benefits of demographic dividend. Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
Correct: D
Assumption 1 contradicts the passage: the tyranny of the fixed-duration classroom leaving learners behind is precisely why change is needed. Assumption 2 contradicts it too: only about 10 percent employability in graduates shows the system does not produce enough skilled workers. Hence neither is valid.
Q39·CSAT·2024
Conventional classrooms, by emphasizing fixed duration over learning effectiveness, resign themselves to variable outcomes. The tyranny of the classroom is that every learner is subjected to the same set of lectures in the same way for the same duration. In the end, a few learners shine, some survive, and the rest are left behind. After the fixed duration, the classroom model moves on, with not a thought spared for those left behind. This is how we end up with 10 percent employability in our graduates after a decade and a half of formal education. Repeating the ineffectual script in the realm of skill education will not produce different results. Question: Which of the following statements best reflects/ reflect the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made from the passage? 1. In conventional classroom learning, the central goal is duration of learning rather than attainment of competency. 2. Conventional classrooms encourage one-size-fits-all approach and stamp out all differentiation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
The passage says the classroom model emphasizes fixed duration over learning effectiveness, subjecting every learner to the same lectures in the same way (1), and that this one-size-fits-all script leaves most learners behind (2). Both inferences are valid.
Q40·CSAT·2024
What is the angle between the minute hand and hour hand when the clock shows 4:25 hours?
Correct: C
17.5. At 4:25, the minute hand is at 25 x 6 = 150 degrees. The hour hand is at 4 x 30 + 25 x 0.5 = 132.5 degrees. The angle between them is 150 - 132.5 = 17.5 degrees.
Q41·CSAT·2024
Let p, q, r and s be distinct positive integers. Let p, q be odd and r, s be even. Consider the following statements: 1. (p - r)^2(qs) is even. 2. (q - s)q^2 s is even. 3. (q + r)^2(p + s) is odd. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct: D
p and q are odd; r and s are even. Statement 1: (p - r)^2 is odd and qs is even, so their product is even - correct. Statement 2: (q - s) is odd, q^2 is odd and s is even, so the product is even - correct. Statement 3: (q + r)^2 is odd and (p + s) is odd, so their product is odd - correct. Hence all three statements are correct.
Q42·CSAT·2024
The calendar for the year 2025 is same for
Correct: C
2025 is a non-leap year beginning on Wednesday. From 2025 to 2031 there are six years including one leap year (2028), an offset of 6 + 1 = 7 days, so 2031 also begins on Wednesday and is non-leap. Hence the calendar of 2025 matches that of 2031.
Q43·CSAT·2024
How many times the hour hand and the minute hand coincide in a clock between a 10:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. (same day)?
Correct: A
3 times. Clock hands coincide once every 720/11 minutes. Between 10:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m., the overlaps occur roughly at 10:54, 12:00 and 1:05. Thus they coincide 3 times.
Q44·CSAT·2024
Consider the following: Weight of 6 boys = Weight of 7 girls = Weight of 3 men = Weight of 4 women If the average weight of the women is 63 kg, then what is the average weight of the boys?
Correct: B
42. The source equality is: weight of 6 boys = weight of 7 girls = weight of 3 men = weight of 4 women. The average weight of a woman is 63 kg, so 4 women weigh 4 x 63 = 252 kg. Therefore 6 boys also weigh 252 kg. Average weight of a boy = 252/6 = 42 kg.
Q45·CSAT·2024
Let X be a two-digit number and Y be another two-digit number formed by interchanging the digits of X. If (X+Y) is the greatest two-digit number, then what is the number of possible values of X?
Correct: D
Let X = 10a + b and Y = 10b + a. X + Y = 11(a + b) = 99, the greatest two-digit number, so a + b = 9. The tens digit a can be 1 to 8 (b = 9 - a must be a non-zero digit), giving 8 possible values of X.
Q46·CSAT·2024
Only with long experience and opening of his wares on many a beach where his language is not spoken, will the merchant come to know the worth of what he carries, and what is parochial and what is universal in his choice. Such delicate goods as justice, love and honour, courtesy, and indeed all the things we care for, are valid everywhere but they are variously moulded and often differently handled, and sometimes nearly unrecognizable if you meet them in a foreign land, and the art of learning fundamental common values is perhaps the greatest gain of travel to those who wish to live at ease among their fellows. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Travel leads to an understanding of humans. 2. Travel helps those who wish to learn fundamental common values. 3. A person with long experience in travel can resolve differences amongst people. Which of the assumptions given above are valid?
Correct: A
The passage says the merchant learns what is parochial and what is universal only through travel, and that learning fundamental common values is perhaps the greatest gain of travel. Assumptions 1 and 2 follow. Assumption 3 is not: the passage never claims travel experience enables resolving differences among people.
Q47·CSAT·2024
When we meet other people while we travel, we learn to differentiate between
Correct: C
The passage says delicate goods such as justice, love and honour are valid everywhere but variously moulded, and that travel teaches what is parochial and what is universal. Hence when we meet other people while travelling, we learn to differentiate between local values and universal values.
Q48·CSAT·2024
"The history of science is the real history of mankind." In this striking epigram, the nineteenth-century writer links science with its background. Like most epigrams, its power lies in emphasizing by contrast an aspect of truth which may be easily overlooked. In this case, it is easy to overlook the relations between science and mankind, and to treat the former as some abstract third party, which can sometimes be praised for its beneficial influences, but frequently and conveniently blamed for the horrors of war. Science and mankind cannot be divorced from time to time seen at men's convenience. Yet we have seen that, in spite of countless opportunities of improvement, the opening years of the present period of civilization have been dominated by international conflict. Is this the inevitable result of the progress of science or does the fault lie elsewhere? Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. The horrors of modern life are the inevitable result of the progress of science. 2. The aspect of truth likely to be overlooked is that science is what man has made it. Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?
Correct: B
Assumption 1 is wrong: the author asks whether the horrors are the inevitable result of science or whether the fault lies elsewhere - he does not assert inevitability. Assumption 2 is valid: the epigram's easily overlooked truth is the relation between science and mankind - science is what man has made it.
Q49·CSAT·2024
"The history of science is the real history of mankind." In this striking epigram, the nineteenth-century writer links science with its background. Like most epigrams, its power lies in emphasizing by contrast an aspect of truth which may be easily overlooked. In this case, it is easy to overlook the relations between science and mankind, and to treat the former as some abstract third party, which can sometimes be praised for its beneficial influences, but frequently and conveniently blamed for the horrors of war. Science and mankind cannot be divorced from time to time seen at men's convenience. Yet we have seen that, in spite of countless opportunities of improvement, the opening years of the present period of civilization have been dominated by international conflict. Is this the inevitable result of the progress of science or does the fault lie elsewhere? Question: Which of the following is/are emphatically conveyed by the author of the passage? 1. Without science, mankind could not have continued to exist till today. 2. It is the science that will ultimately determine the destiny of mankind. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
Statement 1 overstates: the passage says nothing about mankind not existing without science. Statement 2 also overstates: it never says science will ultimately determine the destiny of mankind. Hence neither is emphatically conveyed.
Q50·CSAT·2024
Consider the following: 1. 1000 litres = 1 m^3 2. 1 metric ton = 1000 kg 3. 1 hectare = 10000 m^2 Which of the above are correct?
Correct: D
1 cubic metre = 1000 litres; 1 metric ton = 1000 kg; and 1 hectare = 10000 square metres. Hence all three statements are correct.
Q51·CSAT·2024
A father said to his son, "n years back I was as old as you are now. My present age is four times your age n years back". If the sum of the present ages of the father and the son is 130 years, what is the difference of their ages?
Correct: A
Let the father's and son's present ages be F and S. F - n = S and F = 4(S - n); also F + S = 130. Substituting n = F - S gives F = 4(2S - F), i.e., 5F = 8S. With F + S = 130, F = 80 and S = 50, so the difference of their ages is 30 years.
Q52·CSAT·2024
In an examination, 80% of students passed in English, 70% of students passed in Hindi and 15% failed in both the subjects. What is the percentage of students who failed in only one subject?
Correct: B
20%. Take total students as 100. Passed English = 80, so failed English = 20. Passed Hindi = 70, so failed Hindi = 30. Failed both = 15. Failed only one subject = failed English only + failed Hindi only = (20 - 15) + (30 - 15) = 5 + 15 = 20%.
Q53·CSAT·2024
A number is mistakenly divided by 4 instead of multiplying by 4. What is the percentage change in the result due to this mistake?
Correct: D
93.75%. Let the number be x. Correct result after multiplying by 4 is 4x. Mistaken result after dividing by 4 is x/4. Difference = 4x - x/4 = 15x/4. Percentage change with respect to the correct result = (15x/4)/(4x) x 100 = 15/16 x 100 = 93.75%.
Q54·CSAT·2024
P's salary is 20% lower than Q's salary which is 20% lower than R's salary. By how much percent is R's salary more than P's salary?
Correct: B
Let R's salary be 100. Then Q's salary is 80 and P's is 80% of 80, i.e., 64. R's salary exceeds P's by (100 - 64)/64 x 100 = 56.25%.
Q55·CSAT·2024
Two persons P and Q enter into a business. P puts 14,000 more than Q, but P has invested for 8 months and Q has invested for 10 months. If P's share is 400 more than Q's share out of the total profit of 2,000, what is the capital contributed by P?
Correct: A
Let Q invest q; then P invests q + 14000. Profit shares are proportional to capital x time: P : Q = 8(q + 14000) : 10q. Out of the total profit of 2000, P's share is 1200 and Q's is 800, so 8(q + 14000)/10q = 3/2, giving 16(q + 14000) = 30q and q = 16000. Hence P's capital is 16000 + 14000 = Rs. 30,000.
Q56·CSAT·2024
Consider the sequence A _ BCD_ BBCDABC _ DABC_ D that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence?
Correct: C
The sequence A _ BCD_ BBCDABC _ DABC_ D consists of four five-letter blocks, each being ABCD with one letter doubled: AABCD, ABBCD, ABCCD, ABCDD. Hence the missing letters are A, A, C and D.
Q57·CSAT·2024
We take it for granted now that science has a social responsibility. The idea would not have occurred to Newton or Galileo. They thought of science as an account of the world as it is, and the only responsibility that they acknowledged was to tell the truth. The idea that science is a social enterprise is modern, and it begins at the industrial revolution. We are surprised that we cannot trace a social sense further back, because we nurse the illusion that the industrial revolution ended a golden age. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the thinking of the author about the science?
Correct: D
The passage says we now take it for granted that science has a social responsibility - an idea that would not have occurred to Newton or Galileo, and which begins at the industrial revolution. The message is that science must pursue truth but be responsible for social welfare.
Q58·CSAT·2024
By the time children reach class 8, the bulk of them tend to be in the age range of 13 years to 15 years. But in our country, about a quarter of all children in class 8 struggle with reading simple texts and more than half are still unable to do basic arithmetic operations like division. Every year about 25 million young boys and girls from elementary school move into the life that lies for them beyond compulsory schooling. They cannot enter the workforce at least in the organized sector till they are 18. For many families, these children are the first from their families ever to get this far in school. Parents and children expect that such graduates' from school will go on to high school and college. Hardly anyone wants to go back to agriculture. On the other hand, in terms of academic competencies, their abilities are far lower than they should be even based on curricular expectations of class 8. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?
Correct: C
The passage shows class-8 children with reading and arithmetic competencies far below curricular expectations, who expect to go on to high school and college rather than agriculture. The central idea is that public policy should ensure that the competencies and achievements of young people are aligned with their expectations.
Q59·CSAT·2024
By the time children reach class 8, the bulk of them tend to be in the age range of 13 years to 15 years. But in our country, about a quarter of all children in class 8 struggle with reading simple texts and more than half are still unable to do basic arithmetic operations like division. Every year about 25 million young boys and girls from elementary school move into the life that lies for them beyond compulsory schooling. They cannot enter the workforce at least in the organized sector till they are 18. For many families, these children are the first from their families ever to get this far in school. Parents and children expect that such graduates' from school will go on to high school and college. Hardly anyone wants to go back to agriculture. On the other hand, in terms of academic competencies, their abilities are far lower than they should be even based on curricular expectations of class 8. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. For effective school education, parents have greater role than the governments. 2. School curriculum that conforms to today's requirements and is uniform for the entire country may address the issues brought out. Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
Correct: D
Assumption 1 is not supported: the passage does not compare the roles of parents and governments. Assumption 2 is not supported: it says nothing about a uniform national curriculum conforming to today's requirements. Hence neither is valid.
Q60·CSAT·2024
Consider the following statements in respect of the sum S= x+ y+z, where x, y and Z are distinct prime numbers each less than 10: 1. The unit digit of S can be 0. 2. The unit digit of S can be 9. 3. The unit digit of S can be 5. Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct: C
1 and 3 only. Distinct prime numbers less than 10 are 2, 3, 5 and 7. Sums of three distinct primes are: 2+3+5=10, 2+3+7=12, 2+5+7=14 and 3+5+7=15. Their unit digits are 0, 2, 4 and 5. So unit digit 0 and 5 are possible, but 9 is not possible.
Q61·CSAT·2024
A can X contains 399 litres of petrol and a can Y contains 532 litres of diesel. They are to be bottled in bottles of equal size so that whole of petrol and diesel would be separately bottled. The bottle capacity in terms of litres is an integer. How many different bottle sizes are possible?
Correct: B
4. The bottle size must exactly divide both 399 litres and 532 litres. So possible bottle sizes are the positive divisors of gcd(399, 532). Since gcd(399, 532) = 133 = 7 x 19, its divisors are 1, 7, 19 and 133. Hence 4 different bottle sizes are possible.
Q62·CSAT·2024
421 and 427, when divided by the same number, leave the same remainder 1. How many numbers can be used as the divisor in order to get the same remainder 1?
Correct: C
3. If both 421 and 427 leave remainder 1 on division by the same divisor d, then d must divide 421 - 1 = 420 and 427 - 1 = 426. Hence d must divide gcd(420, 426) = 6. The possible divisors greater than 1 are 2, 3 and 6. Therefore 3 divisors are possible.
Q63·CSAT·2024
What is the rightmost digit preceding the zeros in the value of 30^30?
Correct: D
9. The number is 30^30 = (3 x 10)^30 = 3^30 x 10^30. The zeros at the end come from 10^30. The rightmost non-zero digit is therefore the unit digit of 3^30. Powers of 3 have unit-digit cycle 3,9,7,1. Since 30 leaves remainder 2 when divided by 4, the unit digit is the second value in the cycle, i.e. 9.
Q64·CSAT·2024
What percent of water must be mixed with honey so as to gain 20% by selling the mixture at the cost price of honey?
Correct: A
To gain 20% by selling the mixture at the cost price of honey, the honey must be 100/120 = 5/6 of the mixture, so water is 1/6 of the mixture. Water as a percentage of honey = (1/6)/(5/6) x 100 = 20%.
Q65·CSAT·2024
222^333 + 333^222 is divisible by which of the following numbers?
Correct: B
37. The expression is 222^333 + 333^222. Since 222 = 6 x 37 and 333 = 9 x 37, both terms contain 37 as a factor. Hence their sum is divisible by 37. It is not divisible by 2 because 222^333 is even and 333^222 is odd, so the sum is odd. Therefore 37 is the correct divisor among the given options.
Q66·CSAT·2024
Not every voice on the internet commands the same kind of audience. When anonymous for private entities with high capital can pay more space for their opinions, they are effectively buying a louder voice. If political discourse in the digital sphere is a matter of outshining one's opponent till the election is won, then the quality of politics suffers. The focus of social media is restricted to the promotion of content that generates more user engagement, regardless of how inflammatory the content may be. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made 1. Internet is not inclusive enough. 2. Internet can adversely affect the quality of politics in a country. Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
Correct: C
Assumption 1 is valid: not every voice on the internet commands the same audience - wealthy private entities can buy a louder voice, so the internet is not inclusive enough. Assumption 2 is valid: when political discourse becomes a matter of outshining one's opponent, the quality of politics suffers. Both are valid.
Q67·CSAT·2024
Not every voice on the internet commands the same kind of audience. When anonymous for private entities with high capital can pay more space for their opinions, they are effectively buying a louder voice. If political discourse in the digital sphere is a matter of outshining one's opponent till the election is won, then the quality of politics suffers. The focus of social media is restricted to the promotion of content that generates more user engagement, regardless of how inflammatory the content may be. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the above passage?
Correct: B
The passage portrays social media as platforms where capital buys attention and the focus is restricted to content that generates user engagement, regardless of how inflammatory. The inference is that social media are not ideal or moral institutions but products built by companies to make profits.
Q68·CSAT·2024
Today, if we consider cities such as New York, London and Paris as some of the most iconic cities in the world, it is because plans carrying a heavy systems approach were imposed on their precincts. The backbone of the systems theory is the process of translating social, spatial and cultural desirables into mathematical models using computing, statistics, optimization and an algorithmic way of formulating and solving problems. The early universities of the West which began to train professionals in planning, spawned some of the most ingenious planners, who were experts in these domains. This was because these very subjects were absorbed into the planning curriculum that had its roots in the social sciences, geography and architecture. Planning in India, and its education differ from the West. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. India needs a new generation of urban professionals with knowledge relevant to modern urban practice. 2. Indian universities at present have no capacity or potential to impart training in systems approach. Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?
Correct: A
Assumption 1 is valid: since Indian planning education differs from the West, where systems-approach subjects were absorbed into a curriculum rooted in the social sciences, geography and architecture, India needs a new generation of urban professionals trained in relevant knowledge. Assumption 2 is not: the passage does not say Indian universities have no capacity or potential.
Q69·CSAT·2024
Today, if we consider cities such as New York, London and Paris as some of the most iconic cities in the world, it is because plans carrying a heavy systems approach were imposed on their precincts. The backbone of the systems theory is the process of translating social, spatial and cultural desirables into mathematical models using computing, statistics, optimization and an algorithmic way of formulating and solving problems. The early universities of the West which began to train professionals in planning, spawned some of the most ingenious planners, who were experts in these domains. This was because these very subjects were absorbed into the planning curriculum that had its roots in the social sciences, geography and architecture. Planning in India, and its education differ from the West. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
Correct: A
The passage shows Western planning curricula integrating computing, statistics, optimization, social sciences, geography and architecture to produce ingenious planners. The logical inference for India, whose planning education differs, is that the curriculum for urban planning courses should have a diverse and interdisciplinary approach.
Q70·CSAT·2024
On January 1st, 2023, a person saved 1. On January 2nd, 2023, he saved 2 more than that on the previous day. On January 3rd, 2023, he saved 2 more than that on the previous day and so on. At the end of which date was his total savings a perfect square as well a perfect cube?
Correct: B
8th January, 2023. The daily savings form 1, 3, 5, 7. because each day is Rs. 2 more than the previous day. The sum of the first n odd numbers is n^2. The total saving at the end of day n is therefore n^2. It must also be a perfect cube, so n itself must be a perfect cube. Among the dates given, n = 8 is a cube, and the total is 8^2 = 64 = 4^3. Therefore the date is 8 January 2023.
Q71·CSAT·2024
How many consecutive zeros are there at the end of the integer obtained in the product 12 x24 x 36 x48 x..x2550?
Correct: D
200. The product is 1^2 x 2^4 x 3^6 x ... x 25^50. Trailing zeroes come from factors of 10, so count factors of 5 because factors of 2 are more than enough. A term n^(2n) contributes 2n x v5(n) factors of 5. For n=5,10,15,20 the contributions are 10,20,30,40. For n=25, v5(25)=2, so contribution is 50 x 2 = 100. Total = 10+20+30+40+100 = 200.
Q72·CSAT·2024
X, Y and Z can complete a piece of work individually in 6 hours, 8 hours and 8 hours respectively. However, only one person at a time can work in each hour and nobody can work for two consecutive hours. All are engaged to finish the work. What is the minimum amount of time that they will take to finish the work?
Correct: C
6 hours 45 minutes. Rates are X = 1/6 work/hour, Y = 1/8, Z = 1/8. To minimise time, use X as often as possible but not in consecutive hours. A best sequence is X, Y, X, Z, X, Y for 6 hours: work done = 3/6 + 3/8 = 1/2 + 3/8 = 7/8. Remaining work = 1/8. X can do 1/6 in an hour, so time needed = (1/8)/(1/6) = 3/4 hour = 45 minutes. Total time = 6 hours 45 minutes.
Q73·CSAT·2024
A certain number of men can complete a piece of work in 6k days, where k is a natural number. By what percent should the number of men be increased so that the work can be completed in 5k days?
Correct: C
20%. Work is fixed, so men x days is constant. If M men finish the work in 6k days, then required men for 5k days = M x 6k/5k = 6M/5. Increase = 6M/5 - M = M/5, which is 20% of M.
Q74·CSAT·2024
In the expression 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1, * is chosen from +, -, each at most two times. What is the smallest non-negative value of the expression?
Correct: D
0. Use normal precedence, so multiplication is evaluated before addition and subtraction. One valid choice of operators is 5 - 4 - 3 + 2 x 1. This equals 5 - 4 - 3 + 2 = 0. Since 0 is non-negative and no value can be smaller than 0 among non-negative values, the smallest possible non-negative value is 0.
Q75·CSAT·2024
What is the least possible number of cuts required to cut a cube into 64 identical pieces?
Correct: B
9. To get 64 identical small cubes, the large cube must be divided as 4 x 4 x 4. That requires 3 cuts along each of the three dimensions. Minimum cuts = 3 + 3 + 3 = 9.
Q76·CSAT·2024
According to the Food and Agriculture Organization, one-third of food produced for human consumption is lost or wasted globally. Food is lost or wasted throughout the supply chain, from initial agricultural production to final household consumption. The increasing wastage also results in land degradation by about 45%, mainly due to deforestation, unsustainable agricultural practices and excessive groundwater extraction. The energy spent over wasted food results in about 3.5 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide production every year. Decay also leads to harmful emissions of other gases in the atmosphere. Addressing the loss and wastage of food in all forms is critical to complete the cycle of food sufficiency and food sustainability. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. Fiscal policies of governments are solely responsible for higher prices. 2. Higher prices do not affect the long-term government bonds. Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
Correct: D
Assumption 1 is not valid: the passage does not say fiscal policies are solely responsible for higher prices. Assumption 2 is not valid either: the passage does not discuss long-term government bonds. Hence neither is valid.
Q77·CSAT·2024
According to the Food and Agriculture Organization, one-third of food produced for human consumption is lost or wasted globally. Food is lost or wasted throughout the supply chain, from initial agricultural production to final household consumption. The increasing wastage also results in land degradation by about 45%, mainly due to deforestation, unsustainable agricultural practices and excessive groundwater extraction. The energy spent over wasted food results in about 3.5 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide production every year. Decay also leads to harmful emissions of other gases in the atmosphere. Addressing the loss and wastage of food in all forms is critical to complete the cycle of food sufficiency and food sustainability. Question: Which of the following statements best reflects/reflect the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made from the passage? 1. Central banks cannot bring down inflation without budgetary backing. 2. The effects of monetary policy depend on the fiscal policies pursued by the government. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
The passage (on fiscal-monetary coordination) implies that central banks cannot bring down inflation without budgetary backing (1) and that the effects of monetary policy depend on the fiscal policies pursued by the government (2). Both inferences are valid.
Q78·CSAT·2024
According to the Food and Agriculture Organization, one-third of food produced for human consumption is lost or wasted globally. Food is lost or wasted throughout the supply chain, from initial agricultural production to final household consumption. The increasing wastage also results in land degradation by about 45%, mainly due to deforestation, unsustainable agricultural practices and excessive groundwater extraction. The energy spent over wasted food results in about 3.5 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide production every year. Decay also leads to harmful emissions of other gases in the atmosphere. Addressing the loss and wastage of food in all forms is critical to complete the cycle of food sufficiency and food sustainability. Question: Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: 1. The food distribution mechanism needs to be reimagined and made effective to reduce the loss and wastage of food. 2. Ensuring the reduction of wastage and loss of food is a social and moral responsibility of all citizens. Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
Correct: C
Assumption 1 is valid: since food is lost throughout the supply chain, the distribution mechanism needs to be reimagined and made effective. Assumption 2 is valid: loss and wastage occur from initial production to final household consumption, making its reduction a responsibility of all citizens. Both are valid.
Q79·CSAT·2024
According to the Food and Agriculture Organization, one-third of food produced for human consumption is lost or wasted globally. Food is lost or wasted throughout the supply chain, from initial agricultural production to final household consumption. The increasing wastage also results in land degradation by about 45%, mainly due to deforestation, unsustainable agricultural practices and excessive groundwater extraction. The energy spent over wasted food results in about 3.5 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide production every year. Decay also leads to harmful emissions of other gases in the atmosphere. Addressing the loss and wastage of food in all forms is critical to complete the cycle of food sufficiency and food sustainability. Question: Which of the following statements best reflect the most logical and rational inferences that can be made from the passage? 1. The current methods of food distribution are solely responsible for the loss and wastage of food. 2. Land productivity is adversely affected by the prevailing trend of food loss and wastage. 3. Reduction in the loss and wastage of food results in lesser carbon footprint. 4. Post-harvest technologies to prevent or reduce the loss and wastage of food are not available. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
Correct: B
Statement 2 is valid: wastage results in about 45 per cent land degradation, so land productivity is adversely affected. Statement 3 is valid: the energy spent on wasted food produces about 3.5 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide a year, so reducing wastage lowers the carbon footprint. Statement 1 (solely responsible) and 4 (no post-harvest technologies) are not supported.