80 CSAT questions from the official UPSC 2025 Prelims paper, each with the verified answer key and an explanation.
1–80 of 80
Q1·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
The difference between any two natural numbers is 10. What can be said about the natural numbers which are divisible by 5 and lie between these two numbers?
Correct: C
There can be more than one such number. Two natural numbers differing by 10 can have either one or two multiples of 5 strictly between them depending on their positions. For example, between 1 and 11, both 5 and 10 lie between them. Hence more than one such number can occur.
Q2·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Let x be a real number between 0 and 1. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. x^2 > x^3. II. x > sqrt(x). Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: A
I only. For 0<x<1, multiplying by x makes a positive number smaller. Hence x^3 < x^2, so statement I is correct. But sqrt(x) is greater than x for 0<x<1, so x > sqrt(x) is false. Therefore only statement I is correct.
Q3·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
The average of three numbers p, q and r is k. p is as much more than the average as q is less than the average. What is the value of r?
Correct: A
Let the average be k. Since p is as much more than the average as q is less than it, p - k = k - q, i.e., p + q = 2k. Then (p + q + r)/3 = k gives 2k + r = 3k, so r = k.
Q4·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider a set of 11 numbers: Value-I = Minimum value of the average of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive integers >= -5. Value-II = Minimum value of the product of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive non-negative integers. Which one of the following is correct?
Correct: C
Value-I = Value-II. For 11 consecutive integers >= -5, the minimum average is obtained by -5,-4,...,5, whose average is 0. For 11 consecutive non-negative integers, the minimum product is obtained by 0,1,2,...,10, whose product is 0. Hence both values are equal.
Q5·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Let p + q = 10, where p, q are integers. Value-I = Maximum value of p x q when p, q are positive integers. Value-II = Maximum value of p x q when p >= -6, q >= -4. Which one of the following is correct?
Correct: C
Value-I = Value-II. If p+q=10 and p,q are positive integers, pq is maximised when p and q are as close as possible: p=q=5, so Value-I=25. Under p>=-6 and q>=-4, with q=10-p, the product p(10-p) is still maximised at p=5, q=5. Thus Value-II=25 as well.
Q6·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
In a T20 cricket match, three players X, Y and Z scored a total of 37 runs. The ratio of number of runs scored by X to the number of runs scored by Y is equal to ratio of number of runs scored by Y to number of runs scored by Z. Value-I = Runs scored by X Value-II = Runs scored by Y Value-III = Runs scored by Z Which one of the following is correct?
Correct: D
Cannot be determined. Since X:Y = Y:Z, the scores form a geometric progression and X+Y+Z=37. Positive integer possibilities include 9,12,16 and 16,12,9. These give different orderings of Value-I, Value-II and Value-III. Therefore the relation cannot be uniquely determined.
Q7·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. Question: Is (p + q)^2 - 4pq, where p, q are natural numbers, positive? Statement I: p < q. Statement II: p > q. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: B
(p + q)^2 - 4pq = p^2 - 2pq + q^2 = (p - q)^2. This is positive exactly when p is not equal to q. Statement I (p < q) and Statement II (p > q) each guarantee that p is not equal to q. Hence either statement alone answers the question.
Q8·CSAT·2025·Logical Reasoning
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. Question: In a football match, team P playing against Q was behind by 3 goals with 10 minutes remaining. Does team P win the match? Statement I: Team P scored 4 goals in the last 10 minutes. Statement II: Team Q scored a total of 4 goals in the match. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
P was behind by 3 goals with 10 minutes remaining. Statement I says P scored 4 goals in those minutes, but the result still depends on how many goals Q scored. Statement II only gives Q's total goals in the match, not how many came in the last 10 minutes. Even together, Q's late goals are unknown, so the question cannot be answered even using any of the statements.
Q9·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
Trust stands commonly defined as being vulnerable to others. Entrepreneurship implies trust in others and willingness to expose oneself to betrayal. Trust in expert systems is the essence of globalizing behaviour; trust itself emerges as a super-commodity in the social market and defines the characteristics of goods and services in a global market. Trusting conduct also means holding others in good esteem, and an optimism that they are, or will be, competent in certain respects. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
Correct: D
The passage describes trust as involving vulnerability and exposure to betrayal, yet essential for entrepreneurship, globalization and economic activity; it holds others in good esteem while accepting risk. Hence the crux is that trust is important though it entails risk.
Q10·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
A single number for inflation is an aggregate across different commodities and services. The price rise differs for different items of consumption. So, the single number is arrived at by assigning weights to different commodities and services. For WPI, the weights in production are used; for CPI, the consumption basket is used. But people are not homogeneous. The consumption basket is vastly different for the poor, the middle classes, and the rich. Hence, the CPI is different for each of these classes and a composite index requires averaging the baskets. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage?
Correct: B
The passage explains that a single inflation number averages differently weighted items, while actual price rises differ across items and across income classes whose consumption baskets vary widely. Hence the present calculation of the inflation rate does not correctly measure the price rise of individual items/commodities.
Q11·CSAT·2025·Logical Reasoning
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. Question: How is Q related to P? Statement I: P has two sisters, R and S. Statement II: R's father is the brother of Q. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
Statement I tells us R and S are sisters of P, and Statement II says R's father is the brother of Q, making Q a sibling of P's father. But Q's gender is not given, so Q could be P's paternal uncle or aunt. Hence the relation cannot be determined even using both statements.
Q12·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. Question: Let P, Q, R, S be distinct non-zero digits. If PP x PQ = RRSS, where P <= 3 and Q <= 4, then what is Q equal to? Statement I: R = 1. Statement II: S = 2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
PP x PQ = (10P+P)(10P+Q) = 11P(10P+Q), and RRSS = 1100R + 11S = 11(100R+S), so P(10P+Q) = 100R + S. With P up to 3 and Q up to 4, the only fit is P = 3, Q = 4: 33 x 34 = 1122. Hence Q = 4 can be found without using any of the statements.
Q13·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Read the question and the two Statements I and II, and mark the correct option. Question: What is the smallest 1-digit number having exactly 4 distinct factors? Statement I: 2 is one of the factors. Statement II: 3 is one of the factors. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?
Correct: D
1-digit numbers with exactly 4 distinct factors are 6 (1, 2, 3, 6) and 8 (1, 2, 4, 8); the smallest is 6. This can be determined directly from the question itself, without using either statement.
Q14·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the remainder when 9^3 + 9^4 + 9^5 + 9^6 +... + 9^100 is divided by 6?
Correct: A
0. For any positive power, 9^k leaves remainder 3 when divided by 6. From 9^3 to 9^100 there are 98 terms. Sum of remainders = 98 x 3 = 294, which is divisible by 6. Hence the remainder is 0.
Q15·CSAT·2025·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
In a certain code if 64 is written as 343 and 216 is written as 729, then how is 512 written in that code??
Correct: B
The code maps each cube to the cube of a number 3 greater: 4^3 = 64 is written as 7^3 = 343, and 6^3 = 216 as 9^3 = 729. Hence 512 = 8^3 is written as 11^3 = 1331.
Q16·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
There are 7 places A, B, C, D, E, F and G in a city connected by various roads AB, AC, CD, DE, BF, EG and FG. A is 6 km south of B. A is 10 km west of C. D is 5 km east of E. C is 6 km north of D. F is 9 km west of B. F is 12 km north of G. A person travels from D to F through these roads. What is the distance covered by the person?
Correct: C
31 km. Assign coordinates: A=(0,0), B=(0,6), C=(10,0), D=(10,-6), E=(5,-6), F=(-9,6), G=(-9,-6). A route from D to F through the given roads can be D-C-A-B-F with length 6+10+6+9=31 km. The alternative D-E-G-F also gives 5+14+12=31 km. Hence the distance is 31 km.
Q17·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following statements: I. There exists a natural number which when increased by 50% can have its number of factors unchanged. II. There exists a natural number which when increased by 150% can have its number of factors unchanged. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct: C
Both I and II. Statement I is possible: n=2 has 2 factors, and increasing it by 50% gives 3, which also has 2 factors. Statement II is possible: n=2 increased by 150% gives 5, which also has 2 factors. Hence both statements are correct.
Q18·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
"A network of voluntary associations stands as a 'buffer' between the relatively powerless individual and the potentially powerful State." Question: Which one of the following statements reflects the best explanation of the above passage?
Correct: C
Voluntary associations act as a buffer between the individual and the State by drawing people out of isolation and enabling them to participate in a common collective endeavour, thereby strengthening them against State power.
Q19·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
There has been no democracy that has grown economically without corporate capitalism. It helps in modernizing the economy and enabling the transition from rural to urban, and agriculture to industry and services, which are inevitable with growth. It generates jobs - and there is no other way to fix a country's unemployment challenge without a further impetus to private business. Big companies can operate on a large scale and become competitive both domestically and externally. A vibrant corporate capitalist base also leads to additional revenues for the State - which in turn, can be used for greater welfare for the marginalized and creating a more level playing field in terms of opportunities. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Corporate capitalism promotes the growth of labour force and provides more employment opportunities. II. Poor and marginalized sections of population are benefited by corporate capitalism due to trickle-down effect. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: C
The passage says corporate capitalism generates jobs and helps fix the unemployment challenge, so assumption I is valid. It also says the additional State revenues can be used for greater welfare of the marginalized, i.e., benefits trickling down, so assumption II is also valid. Hence both assumptions are valid.
Q20·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
There has been no democracy that has grown economically without corporate capitalism. It helps in modernizing the economy and enabling the transition from rural to urban, and agriculture to industry and services, which are inevitable with growth. It generates jobs - and there is no other way to fix a country's unemployment challenge without a further impetus to private business. Big companies can operate on a large scale and become competitive both domestically and externally. A vibrant corporate capitalist base also leads to additional revenues for the State - which in turn, can be used for greater welfare for the marginalized and creating a more level playing field in terms of opportunities. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
Correct: A
The opening line states that no democracy has grown economically without corporate capitalism, and the passage shows how it modernizes the economy, generates jobs and raises revenues for welfare. Hence corporate capitalism is important for the economic growth of a State and also for democracy.
Q21·CSAT·2025·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
What is X in the sequence 1, 3, 6, 11, 18, X, 42?
Correct: C
The successive differences are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13 - the consecutive prime numbers. Hence X = 18 + 11 = 29, and 29 + 13 = 42 confirms the pattern.
Q22·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
X can complete one-third of a certain work in 6 days, Y can complete one-third of the same work in 8 days and Z can complete three-fourth of the same work in 12 days. All of them work together for n days and then X and Z quit and Y alone finishes the remaining work in 8 2/3 days. What is n equal to?
Correct: B
4. Rates: X completes 1/3 in 6 days, so X's rate is 1/18 per day. Y's rate is 1/24 per day. Z completes 3/4 in 12 days, so Z's rate is 1/16 per day. Together their rate is 1/18+1/24+1/16 = 23/144. After n days, Y alone works for 8 2/3 days = 26/3 days, completing (1/24)(26/3)=13/36. So n(23/144)+13/36=1. This gives n=4.
Q23·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
The 5-digit number PQRST (all distinct digits) is such that T != 0. P is thrice T. S is greater than Q by 4, while Q is greater than R by 3. How many such 5-digit numbers are possible?
Correct: B
4. T is non-zero and P=3T, so T can be 1, 2 or 3. Also Q=R+3 and S=Q+4=R+7. Testing digit values without repetition gives four valid numbers: 35291, 63072, 64182 and 94183. Hence 4 such numbers are possible.
Q24·CSAT·2025·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If FRANCE is coded as 654321 and GERMANY is coded as 9158437, then how is YEMEN coded?
Correct: D
From the two examples, each letter has a fixed digit: F = 6, R = 5, A = 4, N = 3, C = 2, E = 1, G = 9, M = 8, Y = 7. Hence YEMEN = 7 1 8 1 3, i.e., 71813.
Q25·CSAT·2025·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If NO is coded as 210, NOT is coded as 4200 and NOTE is coded as 21000, then how is NOTES coded?
Correct: A
The code multiplies the alphabet positions of the letters: N x O = 14 x 15 = 210; N x O x T = 210 x 20 = 4200; N x O x T x E = 4200 x 5 = 21000. Hence NOTES = 21000 x 19 (S) = 399000.
Q26·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
P is the brother of Q and R. S is R's mother. T is P's father. How many of the following statements are definitely true? I. S and T are a couple. II. Q is T's son. III. T is Q's father. IV. S is P's mother. V. R is T's daughter. VI. P is S's son. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: C
P is the brother of Q and R, so Q and R are siblings of P. T is P's father, so T is also the father of Q and R. S is R's mother, and since P and R share the same parents, S is also the mother of P and Q, making S and T a couple. Hence the definitely true statements are: I (S and T are a couple), III (T is Q's father), IV (S is P's mother) and VI (P is S's son). The genders of Q and R are unknown, so II and V are not definitely true. Thus only four statements are definitely true.
Q27·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
"A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. For his supporters will push him to disaster unless his opponents show him where the dangers are. So if he is wise he will often pray to be delivered from his friends, because they will ruin him. But, though it hurts, he ought also to pray never to be left without opponents; for they keep him on the path of reason and good sense. The national unity of free people depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power to make it impracticable for the administration to be arbitrary and for opposition to be revolutionary and irreconcilable." Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. In a democracy, a strong opposition is required only if the Head of Government is indifferent. II. The more aggressive the opposition, the better is the governance in a democracy. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: D
The passage says opponents keep a statesman on the path of reason and good sense, not that a strong opposition is required only if the Head of Government is indifferent; and it does not claim that the more aggressive the opposition, the better the governance. Hence neither assumption is valid.
Q28·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. For his supporters will push him to disaster unless his opponents show him where the dangers are. So if he is wise he will often pray to be delivered from his friends, because they will ruin him. But, though it hurts, he ought also to pray never to be left without opponents; for they keep him on the path of reason and good sense. The national unity of free people depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power to make it impracticable for the administration to be arbitrary and for opposition to be revolutionary and irreconcilable. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
Correct: D
The passage argues that opponents show a statesman where the dangers are, and that the balance of political power keeps the administration from being arbitrary and the opposition from being revolutionary. Hence the opposition is indispensable for the balance of political power and good governance.
Q29·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
It is hard to predict how changes in the climate and the atmosphere's chemistry will affect the prevalence and virulence of agricultural diseases. But there is a risk that such changes will make some plant infections more common in all climatic zones, perhaps catastrophically so. Part of the problem is that centuries of selective breeding have refined the genomes of most high-value crops. They are spectacular at growing in today's conditions but genetic variations that are not immediately useful to them have been bred out. This is good for yields but bad for coping with changes. A minor disease or even an unknown one could suddenly rampage through a genetically honed crop. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Global climate change can result in the migration of several plant diseases to new areas. II. Scientific understanding of the wild relatives of our present crops would enable us to strengthen food security. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: C
The passage says climate change may make plant infections more common in all climatic zones, which supports the migration of plant diseases to new areas (assumption I). It also notes that useful genetic variations have been bred out of high-value crops, implying that understanding their wild relatives would strengthen food security (assumption II). Hence both assumptions are valid.
Q30·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
It is hard to predict how changes in the climate and the atmosphere's chemistry will affect the prevalence and virulence of agricultural diseases. But there is a risk that such changes will make some plant infections more common in all climatic zones, perhaps catastrophically so. Part of the problem is that centuries of selective breeding have refined the genomes of most high-value crops. They are spectacular at growing in today's conditions but genetic variations that are not immediately useful to them have been bred out. This is good for yields but bad for coping with changes. A minor disease or even an unknown one could suddenly rampage through a genetically honed crop. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
Correct: B
The passage warns that selectively bred, genetically honed crops have lost variations that help them cope with change, so a minor or unknown disease could suddenly rampage through them. Hence our total dependence on genetically honed crops entails possible food insecurity.
Q31·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Three teams P, Q, R participated in a tournament in which the teams play with one another exactly once. A win fetches a team 2 points and a draw 1 point. A team gets no point for a loss. Each team scored exactly one goal in the tournament. The team P got 3 points, Q got 2 points and R got 1 point. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. The result of the match between P and Q is a draw with the score 0 - 0. II. The number of goals scored by R against Q is 1. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct: C
Both I and II. The three matches are P-Q, P-R and Q-R. Since each team scored exactly one goal in the tournament, each team's total goals across two matches must be 1. P has 3 points, so P must have one win and one draw. R has 1 point, so R must have one draw and one loss. The only score pattern satisfying the points and goal totals is: P-Q = 0-0, P-R = 1-0, and Q-R = 1-1. Therefore statement I is correct, and R scored 1 goal against Q, so statement II is also correct.
Q32·CSAT·2025·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A mobile phone has been stolen. There are 3 suspects P, Q and R. They were questioned knowing that only one of them is guilty. Their responses are as follows: P: I did not steal. Q stole it. Q: R did not steal. I did not steal. R: I did not steal. I do not know who did it. Who stole the mobile phone?
Correct: D
Cannot be concluded. The statements give what P, Q and R said, but the question does not specify how many statements are true or false. Without a truth-telling condition, several guilt assignments can be made consistent with parts of the responses. Therefore the thief cannot be concluded from the given information.
Q33·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the 489th digit in the number 123456789101112...?
Correct: D
9. Digits 1 to 9 use 9 places. Two-digit numbers 10 to 99 use 90 x 2 = 180 places, so 189 places are used up to 99. Remaining position = 489 - 189 = 300. In the three-digit sequence, 300 digits cover exactly 100 numbers, from 100 to 199. The 300th digit is the last digit of 199, which is 9.
Q34·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Let P = QQQ be a 3-digit number. What is the HCF of P and 481?
Correct: C
37. A three-digit number QQQ equals 111Q. Since 111 = 3 x 37 and 481 = 13 x 37, the common factor is 37. Thus the HCF is 37.
Q35·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
If n is a natural number, then what is the number of distinct remainders of (1^n + 2^n) when divided by 4?
Correct: C
2. Since 1^n is always 1, consider 2^n modulo 4. For n=1, 2^n ≡ 2 mod 4, so 1^n+2^n ≡ 3 mod 4. For n>=2, 2^n is divisible by 4, so the remainder is 1. Thus there are exactly two distinct remainders: 3 and 1.
Q36·CSAT·2025·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A set (X) of 20 pipes can fill 70% of a tank in 14 minutes. Another set (Y) of 10 pipes fills 3/8th of the tank in 6 minutes. A third set (Z) of 16 pipes can empty half of the tank in 20 minutes. If half of the pipes of set X are closed and only half of the pipes of set Y are open, and all pipes of the set (Z) are open, then how long will it take to fill 50% of the tank?
Correct: D
Rate of one pipe of set X = 70%/(20 x 14) = 0.25% of the tank per minute. Rate of one pipe of set Y = (3/8 x 100%)/(10 x 6) = 0.625% per minute. Rate of one pipe of set Z = 50%/(16 x 20) = 0.15625% per minute (emptying). With 10 pipes of X, 5 pipes of Y and 16 pipes of Z open, the net filling rate = 10 x 0.25 + 5 x 0.625 - 16 x 0.15625 = 2.5 + 3.125 - 2.5 = 3.125% per minute. Time to fill 50% = 50/3.125 = 16 minutes.
Q37·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
In only 50 years, the world's consumption of raw materials has nearly quadrupled, to more than 100 billion tons. Less than 9% of this is reused. Batteries of old vehicles contain materials such as lithium, cobalt, manganese and nickel that are pricey and can be hard to obtain. Supply chains are long and complicated. Buyers' risks are being aggravated by their suppliers' poor environmental and labour standards. Reusing materials makes sense. Once batteries reach the ends of their lives, they should go back to a factory where their ingredients can be recovered and put into new batteries. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Automobile factories are examples of the circular economy. II. Economic growth is compatible with circular use of mineral resources. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: B
The passage discusses reusing battery materials, not automobile factories as examples of the circular economy, so assumption I is not valid. It shows that reusing materials makes sense and supports continued production, so economic growth is compatible with circular use of mineral resources, and assumption II is valid. Hence only assumption II is valid.
Q38·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
In only 50 years, the world's consumption of raw materials has nearly quadrupled, to more than 100 billion tons. Less than 9% of this is reused. Batteries of old vehicles contain materials such as lithium, cobalt, manganese and nickel that are pricey and can be hard to obtain. Supply chains are long and complicated. Buyers' risks are being aggravated by their suppliers' poor environmental and labour standards. Reusing materials makes sense. Once batteries reach the ends of their lives, they should go back to a factory where their ingredients can be recovered and put into new batteries. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the passage?
Correct: C
The passage shows that reusing scarce, pricey battery materials makes economic and environmental sense. Hence the circular economy can be beneficial for sustainable growth.
Q39·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
Over the next 30 years, many countries are promising to move to net-zero carbon, implying that household emissions will have to be cut to close to nothing. A leading climate scientist reckons that, at best, half the reduction might be achieved through demand-side measures, such as behavioural changes by individuals and households. And even that would require companies and governments to provide more incentives to change through supply-side investments to make low-carbon options cheaper and more widely available. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Supply-side investments in companies can result in low-carbon behaviour in people. II. People are not capable of adapting low-carbon behaviour without the involvement of Government and Companies. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: A
The passage says supply-side investments can make low-carbon options cheaper and more widely available, so assumption I is valid. It does not claim that people are incapable of low-carbon behaviour without Government and Companies, so assumption II is not valid. Hence only assumption I is valid.
Q40·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
Over the next 30 years, many countries are promising to move to net-zero carbon, implying that household emissions will have to be cut to close to nothing. A leading climate scientist reckons that, at best, half the reduction might be achieved through demand-side measures, such as behavioural changes by individuals and households. And even that would require companies and governments to provide more incentives to change through supply-side investments to make low-carbon options cheaper and more widely available. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?
Correct: B
The passage says behavioural change needs incentives through supply-side investments that make low-carbon options cheaper and more widely available. Hence low-carbon behaviour in people can be brought about by incentivising them.
Q41·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
If N2 = 12345678987654321, then how many digits does the number N have?
Correct: B
9. The number 12345678987654321 is the square of 111111111. Therefore N has 9 digits.
Q42·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
A tram overtakes 2 persons X and Y walking at an average speed of 3 km/hr and 4 km/hr in the same direction and completely passes them in 8 seconds and 9 seconds respectively. What is the length of the tram?
Correct: C
20 m. Let the speed of the tram be v km/h and its length be L metres. While overtaking X, relative speed = v-3 km/h and time = 8 s, so L = (v-3) x 5/18 x 8. While overtaking Y, relative speed = v-4 km/h and time = 9 s, so L = (v-4) x 5/18 x 9. Equating these: 8(v-3)=9(v-4), giving v=12 km/h. Then L = 9 x 5/18 x 8 = 20 m.
Q43·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
If P = +, Q = -, R = x, S = /, then insert the proper notations between the successive numbers in the equation 60_15_3_20_4 = 20:
Correct: B
QRPS. Substitute Q=-, R=x, P=+, S=/. The option QRPS gives 60 - 15 x 3 + 20 / 4. Applying normal order of operations: 15 x 3 = 45 and 20/4 = 5, so the value is 60 - 45 + 5 = 20.
Q44·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
P and Q walk along a circular track. They start at 5:00 a.m. from the same point in opposite directions. P walks at an average speed of 5 rounds per hour and Q walks at an average speed of 3 rounds per hour. How many times will they cross each other between 5:20 a.m. and 7:00 a.m.?
Correct: B
13. Their relative speed in opposite directions is 5+3 = 8 rounds per hour, so they meet every 1/8 hour = 7.5 minutes. Between 5:20 a.m. and 7:00 a.m., excluding the endpoint at 7:00 as 'between', the meeting times are from 5:22:30 through 6:52:30. That gives 13 crossings.
Q45·CSAT·2025·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
What is X in the sequence 24, X, 12, 18, 36, 90?
Correct: B
The sequence multiplies successively by 0.5, 1.5, 2 and 2.5: 24 x 0.5 = 12 (X), 12 x 1.5 = 18, 18 x 2 = 36, 36 x 2.5 = 90. Hence X = 12.
Q46·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the maximum value of n such that 7 x 343 x 385 x 1000 x 2401 x 77777 is divisible by 35^n?
Correct: B
4. Since 35 = 5 x 7, the power of 35 is limited by the smaller of the powers of 5 and 7 in the product. The factors provide four 5s: one from 385 and three from 1000. There are more than four 7s. Therefore the largest n is 4.
Q47·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
If there is inequality in the pattern of population growth, there is greater inequality in food production and utilization. As societies become wealthier, their consumption of animal products increases. This means that a greater proportion of such basic foodstuff as grains and legumes that could feed humans directly is instead being converted into feed for poultry and large farm animals. Yet this conversion of plant-based food into animal food for humans is far from efficient. Only 16% of the calories fed to chickens are recovered by us when we eat them. This conversion rate goes down to five to seven per cent in large animals that are fed grain to add fat and some protein before slaughter. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. The food manufacturing and processing industries in every country should align their objectives and processes in accordance with the changing needs of the societies. II. Wealthier societies tend to incur great loss of calories of food materials due to indirect utilization of their agricultural produce. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: B
The passage does not prescribe that food industries everywhere align to society's changing needs, so assumption I is not valid. It shows that wealthier societies convert grains into animal feed at large calorie losses, so assumption II is valid. Hence only assumption II is valid.
Q48·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
If there is inequality in the pattern of population growth, there is greater inequality in food production and utilization. As societies become wealthier, their consumption of animal products increases. This means that a greater proportion of such basic foodstuff as grains and legumes that could feed humans directly is instead being converted into feed for poultry and large farm animals. Yet this conversion of plant-based food into animal food for humans is far from efficient. Only 16% of the calories fed to chickens are recovered by us when we eat them. This conversion rate goes down to five to seven per cent in large animals that are fed grain to add fat and some protein before slaughter. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
Correct: B
The passage shows that converting plant food into animal food recovers only 16% of the calories in chickens and five to seven per cent in large animals. Hence animal-based food is far less efficient than grain/plant-based food in terms of production and utilization.
Q49·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
In our country, regrettably, teaching and learning for the examination have been our forte but the new demands of society and the future of work require critical and independent thinking, learning through doing, asking questions from multiple disciplinary perspectives on the same issue, using evidence for building arguments, and reflecting and articulation. Higher education should not either be a mere servant of the government policy or a passive respondent to public mood. Higher learning is all about how to think rather than what to think. Teaching has to be re-invented. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Higher education is a constantly evolving subject that needs to align towards new developments in all spheres of society. II. In our country, sufficient funds are not allocated for promoting higher education. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: A
The passage calls for higher education to respond to the new demands of society and the future of work, so assumption I is valid. It does not discuss funding of higher education, so assumption II is not valid. Hence only assumption I is valid.
Q50·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
In our country, regrettably, teaching and learning for the examination have been our forte but the new demands of society and the future of work require critical and independent thinking, learning through doing, asking questions from multiple disciplinary perspectives on the same issue, using evidence for building arguments, and reflecting and articulation. Higher education should not either be a mere servant of the government policy or a passive respondent to public mood. Higher learning is all about how to think rather than what to think. Teaching has to be re-invented. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?
Correct: D
The passage says teaching has to be re-invented and the classroom reimagined for critical, independent thinking. Hence classroom needs to be reimagined and teaching needs to be re-invented.
Q51·CSAT·2025·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Consider the sequence AB_CC_A_BCCC_BBC_C that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence?
Correct: C
Filling the blanks with B, C, B, A and C turns the sequence into the block ABBCCC repeated three times: ABBCCC ABBCCC ABBCCC. Hence the completing choice is B, C, B, A, C.
Q52·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Let PQR be a 3-digit number, PPT be a 3-digit number and PS be a 2-digit number, where P, Q, R, S, T are distinct non-zero digits. Further, PQR - PS = PPT. If Q = 3 and T < 6, then what is the number of possible values of (R, S)?
Correct: B
3. Use PQR - PS = PPT with Q=3 and T<6. In place values: (100P+30+R) - (10P+S) = 110P + T. Simplifying gives 20 + R - S = 20P + T. Testing distinct non-zero digits with T<6 gives valid pairs (R,S) = (2,7), (2,8), and (4,9). Hence 3 possible values of (R,S).
Q53·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
There are n sets of numbers each having only three positive integers with LCM equal to 1001 and HCF equal to 1. What is the value of n?
Correct: D
1001 = 7 x 11 x 13, so the three numbers must jointly contain all three prime factors for LCM 1001 while sharing no common factor. Many sets work - (1, 7, 143), (1, 11, 91), (1, 13, 77), (7, 11, 13), (1, 77, 143), (7, 11, 1001), (7, 13, 1001), (11, 13, 1001) and more - well over 8. Hence n is more than 8.
Q54·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Let both p and k be prime numbers such that (p^2 + k) is also a prime number less than 30. What is the number of possible values of k?
Correct: B
5. Since p and k are prime and p^2+k is a prime less than 30, test primes p less than sqrt(30). For p=2, k can be 3, 7, 13 and 19, giving 7, 11, 17 and 23. For p=3, k=2 gives 11. Distinct possible k values are 2, 3, 7, 13 and 19, so there are 5.
Q55·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
If 4 <= x <= 8 and 2 <= y <= 7, then what is the ratio of maximum value of (x + y) to minimum value of (x - y)?
Correct: D
None of the above. Maximum value of x+y occurs at x=8, y=7, giving 15. Minimum value of x-y occurs at x=4, y=7, giving -3. The ratio is 15/(-3) = -5, which is not among the numerical options. Hence none of the above.
Q56·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the first 100 natural numbers. How many of them are not divisible by any one of 2, 3, 5, 7 and 9?
Correct: C
22. Count numbers from 1 to 100 not divisible by 2, 3, 5 or 7. Using inclusion-exclusion, remove multiples of 2, 3, 5 and 7 and add back overlaps. The count of numbers coprime to 2 x 3 x 5 x 7 within 1-100 is 22.
Q57·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
In our country, handlooms are equated with a culture that ensures a continuity of tradition. This idea has become part of the public policy-framing and provides a legitimate basis for the State to support the sector. But the notion of tradition as a single, linear entity is being strongly contested today. The narratives dominant in defining culture/tradition in a particular way are seen to have emerged as the identities and histories of large sections. The discounted and, at times, forcibly stifled identities are fighting for their rightful place in history. Against this backdrop, when we promote handloom as a traditional industry, it is not surprising that large sections of our population choose to ignore it. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. There is no need for the State to be involved in any manner in the handloom sector. II. Handloom products are no longer appealing and attractive in the rapidly changing modern world. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: D
The passage does not call for removing State involvement in handlooms, and it says nothing about handloom products losing appeal in the modern world. Hence neither assumption is valid.
Q58·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
In our country, handlooms are equated with a culture that ensures a continuity of tradition. This idea has become part of the public policy-framing and provides a legitimate basis for the State to support the sector. But the notion of tradition as a single, linear entity is being strongly contested today. The narratives dominant in defining culture/tradition in a particular way are seen to have emerged as the identities and histories of large sections. The discounted and, at times, forcibly stifled identities are fighting for their rightful place in history. Against this backdrop, when we promote handloom as a traditional industry, it is not surprising that large sections of our population choose to ignore it. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage?
Correct: A
The passage argues that the narrative of handloom as a single linear tradition suppresses discounted and stifled identities. Hence we need to free the handloom industry from the limited narrative linked only to preserving cultural heritage.
Q59·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
One of the dismal realities of the agricultural sector in independent India has been that it never experienced a high-growth phase, unlike the non-agricultural economy. The highest decadal growth (compound annual growth rate or CAGR) for agriculture has been just 3.5% in the 1980s. Also, after experiencing a spurt in decadal growth during the 1980s, agricultural growth suffered relative stagnation thereafter. This is in sharp contrast to non-agricultural growth, which consistently increased from the 1980s to 2000s. Question: With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: The growing divergence between the fortunes of the agricultural and non-agricultural economy in India could have been reduced/contained by: I. adapting large-scale cultivation of commercial crops and viable corporate farming. II. providing free insurance for all crops and heavily subsidizing seeds, fertilizers, electricity and farm machinery at par with developed countries. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: D
The passage only describes the divergence between agricultural and non-agricultural growth; it does not suggest corporate farming, free insurance or heavy subsidies as remedies. Hence neither assumption is valid.
Q60·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
One of the dismal realities of the agricultural sector in independent India has been that it never experienced a high-growth phase, unlike the non-agricultural economy. The highest decadal growth (compound annual growth rate or CAGR) for agriculture has been just 3.5% in the 1980s. Also, after experiencing a spurt in decadal growth during the 1980s, agricultural growth suffered relative stagnation thereafter. This is in sharp contrast to non-agricultural growth, which consistently increased from the 1980s to 2000s. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the corollary to the above passage?
Correct: A
Since agricultural growth stagnated while non-agricultural growth consistently rose after the 1980s, the corollary is that the benefit of economic reforms percolates down more slowly to the agriculture sector than to other sectors of the economy.
Q61·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the unit digit in the multiplication of 1 x 3 x 5 x 7 x 9 x ... x 999?
Correct: C
5. The product contains the factor 5 and all other factors are odd. Once a product has a factor 5 and no factor 2, its unit digit remains 5. Therefore the unit digit is 5.
Q62·CSAT·2025·Logical Reasoning
Consider the following statements: I. If A <= B > C < D > E > F >= G = H; then B is always greater than E. II. If P > Q = R >= S = T <= U = V > W; then S is always less than V. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct: D
Statement I: from B > C and C < D > E there is no fixed relation between B and E, so I is not correct. Statement II: S = T, T <= U and U = V give S <= V, not S < V, so II is not correct. Hence neither statement is correct.
Q63·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
A 4-digit number N is such that when divided by 3, 5, 6, 9 leaves a remainder 1, 3, 4, 7 respectively. What is the smallest value of N?
Correct: C
1078. The conditions are N ≡ 1 mod 3, N ≡ 3 mod 5, N ≡ 4 mod 6 and N ≡ 7 mod 9. The mod 6 condition already implies N ≡ 1 mod 3, so search numbers satisfying N ≡ 4 mod 6, N ≡ 3 mod 5 and N ≡ 7 mod 9. The smallest four-digit number satisfying all three is 1078.
Q64·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
The petrol price shot up by 10% as a result of the hike in crude oil prices. The price of petrol before the hike was Rs. 90 per litre. A person travels 2200 km every month and his car gives a mileage of 16 km per litre. By how many km should he reduce his travel if he wants to maintain his expenditure at the previous level?
Correct: B
200 km. Old monthly petrol use = 2200/16 = 137.5 litres. At Rs. 90 per litre, monthly spending = 137.5 x 90 = Rs. 12,375. New price after 10% hike = Rs. 99 per litre. To keep spending unchanged, petrol affordable = 12,375/99 = 125 litres. Distance possible = 125 x 16 = 2000 km. Reduction required = 2200 - 2000 = 200 km.
Q65·CSAT·2025·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If 7 * 24 = 25 and 12 * 16 = 20, then what is 16 * 63 equal to?
Correct: C
7^2 + 24^2 = 49 + 576 = 625 = 25^2, and 12^2 + 16^2 = 144 + 256 = 400 = 20^2. So a * b means sqrt(a^2 + b^2). Hence 16 * 63 = sqrt(16^2 + 63^2) = sqrt(256 + 3969) = sqrt(4225) = 65.
Q66·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
A solid cube is painted yellow on all its faces. The cube is then cut into 60 smaller but equal pieces by making the minimum number of cuts. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. The minimum number of cuts is 9. II. The number of smaller pieces which are not painted on any face is 6. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct: C
Both I and II. To cut a cube into 60 equal smaller pieces with minimum straight cuts, use dimensions 3 x 4 x 5 because 3x4x5=60. Required cuts = (3-1)+(4-1)+(5-1)=2+3+4=9, so statement I is correct. Unpainted interior pieces = (3-2)(4-2)(5-2)=1x2x3=6, matching statement II in the source item. Hence both are correct.
Q67·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
If the social inequality is the most acutely felt social problem in India, insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic problem. Besides those below the official poverty line, even those just over the poverty line are subject to multiple economic insecurities of various kinds (due to wealth and/or health risks, market fluctuations, job-related uncertainties). Many Government policies are actually intended towards mitigating these insecurities. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. People above the poverty line also are prone to suffer from anxiety about economic insecurity. II. Eradication of poverty can result in peace and social equality in the country. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: A
The passage says even those just above the poverty line face multiple economic insecurities, so assumption I is valid. It does not claim that eradicating poverty would bring peace and social equality, so assumption II is not valid. Hence only assumption I is valid.
Q68·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
If the social inequality is the most acutely felt social problem in India, insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic problem. Besides those below the official poverty line, even those just over the poverty line are subject to multiple economic insecurities of various kinds (due to wealth and/or health risks, market fluctuations, job-related uncertainties). Many Government policies are actually intended towards mitigating these insecurities. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage?
Correct: D
The passage states plainly that insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic problem, and that many Government policies are intended to mitigate these insecurities. Hence insecurity, more than poverty, is the main economic issue that Government policies must address.
Q69·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
Each State in India faces a distinctive set of challenges regarding the impact of warming, but also offers its own set of opportunities for reducing emissions depending on its natural resources. For example, coastal States need to take action to protect their shores from sea level rise, districts that are drier need to prepare for variable monsoon precipitation. Himalayan regions have their own unique challenges, and selected parts of peninsular India and offshore areas offer great opportunities for harnessing wind power. These various aspects need to be considered for developing clear and sustainable goals for the future. Question: With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Green energy production can be linked to/integrated with the climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies. II. Effects of climate change are much more severe in coastal and mountainous regions. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: A
The passage says States offer opportunities for reducing emissions through natural resources such as wind power, so linking green energy to mitigation and adaptation is valid (assumption I). It does not compare the severity of climate effects across regions, so assumption II is not valid. Hence only assumption I is valid.
Q70·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
Each State in India faces a distinctive set of challenges regarding the impact of warming, but also offers its own set of opportunities for reducing emissions depending on its natural resources. For example, coastal States need to take action to protect their shores from sea level rise, districts that are drier need to prepare for variable monsoon precipitation. Himalayan regions have their own unique challenges, and selected parts of peninsular India and offshore areas offer great opportunities for harnessing wind power. These various aspects need to be considered for developing clear and sustainable goals for the future. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the author of the passage?
Correct: D
The passage shows that challenges and opportunities vary State by State and must all be considered together. Hence India needs to formulate effective climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies at the State/region level.
Q71·CSAT·2025·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
The price (p) of a commodity is first increased by k%; then decreased by k%; again increased by k%; and again decreased by k%. If the new price is q, then what is the relation between p and q?
Correct: A
After the four changes the price becomes p(1 + k/100)(1 - k/100)(1 + k/100)(1 - k/100) = p(1 - k^2/10^4)^2 = p(10^4 - k^2)^2/10^8. Hence p(10^4 - k^2)^2 = q x 10^8.
Q72·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Team X scored a total of N runs in 20 overs. Team Y tied the score in 10% less overs. Had team Y's average run rate (runs per over) been 50% higher, the scores would have been tied in 12 overs. How many runs were scored by team X?
Correct: D
Cannot be determined. Team Y tied N runs in 10% less than 20 overs, i.e. in 18 overs. Its run rate was N/18. If this rate were 50% higher, the new rate would be 1.5 x N/18 = N/12. At that rate, scoring N runs would take exactly 12 overs. This condition is true for every value of N, so N cannot be determined.
Q73·CSAT·2025·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
What comes at X and Y respectively in the following sequence? January, January, December, October, X, March, October, Y, September
Correct: B
The months step backwards by 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 positions successively: January, January, December, October, July, March, October, April, September. Hence X = July and Y = April.
Q74·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
How many possible values of (p + q + r) are there satisfying 1/p + 1/q + 1/r = 1, where p, q and r are natural numbers (not necessarily distinct)?
Correct: C
Three. For natural numbers satisfying 1/p + 1/q + 1/r = 1, the unordered solution types are (3,3,3), (2,4,4), and (2,3,6). Their sums are 9, 10 and 11. Hence there are three possible values of p+q+r.
Q75·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
Three prime numbers p, q and r, each less than 20, are such that p - q = q - r. How many distinct possible values can we get for (p + q + r)?
Correct: A
Primes below 20 in arithmetic progression: (3,5,7), (3,7,11), (3,11,19), (5,11,17), (7,13,19). Their sums are 15, 21, 33 and 39 - 4 distinct values.
Q76·CSAT·2025·Quantitative Aptitude
A natural number N is such that it can be expressed as N = p + q + r, where p, q and r are distinct factors of N. How many numbers below 50 have this property?
Correct: C
8. Every multiple of 6 below 50 works: if N=6k, then k, 2k and 3k are distinct factors of N and k+2k+3k=6k=N. This gives N = 6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36, 42 and 48. Checking numbers below 50 outside these cases does not produce three distinct factors adding to the number. Hence the count is 8.
Q77·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
The history of renewable energy suggests there is a steep learning curve, meaning that, as more is produced, costs fall rapidly because of economies of scale and learning by doing. The firms' green innovation is path-dependent: the more a firm does, the more it is likely to do in the future. The strongest evidence for this is the collapse in the price of solar energy, which became about 90% cheaper during the 2010s, repeatedly beating forecasts. Moving early and gradually gives economies more time to adjust, allowing them to reap the benefits of path-dependent green investment without much disruption. A late, more chaotic transition is costlier. Question: With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Path-dependent green investments will eventually most likely benefit growth as well as public finances in a country like India. II. If other green technologies follow the same pattern as that of solar energy, there will most likely be an easy green transition. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: C
The passage shows that early, gradual green investment pays off through learning curves and falling costs, supporting growth and public finances (assumption I), and that if other green technologies follow solar's cost collapse, the green transition becomes easier (assumption II). Hence both assumptions are valid.
Q78·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
The history of renewable energy suggests there is a steep learning curve, meaning that, as more is produced, costs fall rapidly because of economies of scale and learning by doing. The firms' green innovation is path-dependent: the more a firm does, the more it is likely to do in the future. The strongest evidence for this is the collapse in the price of solar energy, which became about 90% cheaper during the 2010s, repeatedly beating forecasts. Moving early and gradually gives economies more time to adjust, allowing them to reap the benefits of path-dependent green investment without much disruption. A late, more chaotic transition is costlier. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage?
Correct: D
The passage contrasts moving early and gradually - which gives economies time to adjust - with a late, chaotic and costlier transition. Hence timing plays a crucial role in the case of green technology development.
Q79·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
Maintaining an ecosystem just to conserve biodiversity will affect its commercial potential as well as the livelihoods dependent on the ecosystem. There is also a conflict between using an ecosystem only for livelihoods, for commercial exploitation, or strictly for conservation. Deforestation caused due to commercial exploitation will lead to indirect harm like floods, siltation problems and microclimatic instability, apart from adversely affecting livelihoods dependent on forests. These conflicts are particularly acute in developing countries where the dependence of people on the ecosystem is significant, and commercial exploitation has the potential to boost national income. Question: With reference to above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. No country needs to depend on ecosystems to boost national income. II. Resource-rich countries need to share their resources with those of scant resources so as to prevent the degradation of ecosystems. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
Correct: D
The passage notes that developing countries do depend on ecosystems for livelihoods and national income, and it says nothing about resource-sharing between countries. Hence neither assumption is valid.
Q80·CSAT·2025·Reading Comprehension
Maintaining an ecosystem just to conserve biodiversity will affect its commercial potential as well as the livelihoods dependent on the ecosystem. There is also a conflict between using an ecosystem only for livelihoods, for commercial exploitation, or strictly for conservation. Deforestation caused due to commercial exploitation will lead to indirect harm like floods, siltation problems and microclimatic instability, apart from adversely affecting livelihoods dependent on forests. These conflicts are particularly acute in developing countries where the dependence of people on the ecosystem is significant, and commercial exploitation has the potential to boost national income. Question: Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
Correct: C
The passage describes the conflict among conservation, livelihoods and commercial exploitation, and notes that these conflicts are acute in developing countries. Hence sustenance of livelihood and degradation of ecosystem, while being together, exacerbate one another, leading to conflicts and imbalance.