80 CSAT questions from the official UPSC 2026 Prelims paper, each with the verified answer key and an explanation.
1–80 of 80
Q1·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
A shopkeeper employs a delivery boy and gives him a motorcycle for home delivery. For every delivery, the boy is given Rs. 75. At the end of the day, he also gets Rs. 12 for every kilometre of the distance covered in the day. The boy wants to earn more than Rs. 7500 a day, but does not want to travel more than 100 km. Which of the following numbers of deliveries can satisfy the above conditions?
Correct: D
The question cannot be answered due to insufficient data. The boy's earning depends on two variables: number of deliveries and kilometres travelled. The condition gives total earning = 75 x deliveries + 12 x kilometres, but the question does not fix either variable or provide a relationship between them. Therefore the required number cannot be determined uniquely.
Q2·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
There are two chemicals which do not react with each other. A container contains 10 litres of the chemical A. One litre of this chemical is removed from it and one litre of the chemical B is poured. Then one litre of the mixture is removed from the container and one litre of B is poured. If this process of replacing one litre of the mixture by one litre of B is performed once more, then what is the volume of B that is present in the container approximately (in percentage)?
Correct: B
Liquid B forms approximately 27 percent of the mixture. Each replacement removes 1 litre from a 10 litre mixture and refills it, so the fraction of liquid A left is multiplied by 9/10 each time. The operation is performed three times. Fraction of A remaining = (9/10)^3 = 729/1000 = 72.9 percent. Therefore liquid B forms 100 - 72.9 = 27.1 percent of the mixture, approximately 27 percent.
Q3·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
Three partners A, B and C entered into business. A invested one-third of the capital for one-third duration. B invested one-fourth of the capital for one-fourth duration. C invested the remaining capital for the whole duration. Out of a profit of 17,000, how much profit will C get?
Correct: A
12,000. Profit share is proportional to capital x time. A contributes (1/3 capital) for (1/3 duration), giving 1/9. B contributes 1/4 x 1/4 = 1/16. C contributes the remaining capital 1 - 1/3 - 1/4 = 5/12 for the full duration, giving 5/12. Ratio = 1/9 : 1/16 : 5/12 = 16:9:60. C's share = 60/(16+9+60) x 17,000 = 12,000.
Q4·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
With reference to 'circular letters', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Circular letters are usually addressed to a group of people. 2. Non-standard and customized content is typical of circular letters. 3. Circular letters are used to intimate appraisals and increments of employees within organisations. 4 Circular letters are less cost-effective than personalised and specific recipient-directed letters. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
Circular letters are standardized letters addressed to a group of people for common information, so statement 1 is correct. Their content is standardized, not customized (statement 2 wrong); personal matters like appraisals and increments are not conveyed by circular letters (statement 3 wrong); and circular letters are far more cost-effective than personalised letters (statement 4 wrong). Hence only statement 1 is correct.
Q5·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
You are required to design a 'questionnaire' to be filled on-location by visitors, based on the following objective while writing a report: "To determine the feasibility of setting up a family-oriented vacation resort in the vicinity of a lake destination in the mountains" Which of the following heads would you include in the questionnaire to make it most appropriate for your purpose? 1. Size of family 2. Budget 3. Number of earners in the family 4. Food allergies and dietary restrictions Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
1 and 2 only. The questionnaire is for judging feasibility of a family-oriented vacation resort near a mountain lake destination. Size of family is directly relevant because it indicates accommodation type, room capacity and family facilities. Budget is directly relevant because it indicates price feasibility and expected spending capacity. Number of earners is intrusive and not necessary for deciding resort feasibility. Food allergies and dietary restrictions may matter later for operations, but they are not central to the feasibility objective stated in the question. Hence 1 and 2 only should be included.
Q6·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists. List-I (Barrier to communication): A. Semantic; B. Cognitive; C. Organisational; D. Affective. List-II (Example): 1. Lack of feedback; 2. Misunderstanding the meaning of a word; 3. Fear of social stigma; 4. Information overload.
Correct: D
Semantic barriers arise from misunderstanding the meaning of a word, so A-2. Cognitive barriers include information overload, so B-4. Organisational barriers include lack of feedback, so C-1. Affective barriers arise from emotions such as fear of social stigma, so D-3. Hence the code A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3.
Q7·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Which among the following actions would constitute the most appropriate directive(s) in resolving interpersonal conflict in an office with culturally diverse personnel? 1. Direct personnel to practise activities that are the cultural markers of diverse groups 2. Allow conflicts to resolve naturally over time to set an appropriate precedent of leadership 3. Encourage personnel to seek each other's perspectives Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
Encouraging personnel to seek each other's perspectives builds mutual understanding and resolves conflict constructively, so action 3 is appropriate. Forcing cultural-marker activities on personnel can be intrusive, and leaving conflicts to resolve naturally abdicates leadership. Hence only action 3 is the most appropriate directive.
Q8·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Tool of communication): A. Memorandum; B. Flyer; C. Bcc; D. Minutes. List-II (Purpose): 1. To record decisions; 2. To inform confidentially; 3. To intimate a directive; 4. To disseminate non-targeted information. Code:
Correct: C
A memorandum is used to intimate a directive (A-3); a flyer disseminates non-targeted information (B-4); Bcc informs confidentially (C-2); minutes record decisions (D-1). Hence the code A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.
Q9·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Relationship type): A. Between cricket captain and team members; B. Between judge and lawyers in court; C. Between Vice Chancellor and Deputy Registrar; D. Between peers and coworkers. List-II (Communication category): 1. Informal and firm; 2. Informal and open-ended; 3. Formal and open-ended; 4. Formal and firm. Code:
Correct: B
A cricket captain communicating with team members is generally informal but firm, so A-1. Communication between a judge and lawyers in court is formal and firm because it follows courtroom procedure, so B-4. Communication between a Vice Chancellor and Deputy Registrar is formal and may remain open-ended for administrative discussion, so C-3. Communication between peers and coworkers is informal and open-ended, so D-2. This matches option B.
Q10·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Consider the following three statements, namely S1, S2 and S3: S1. Protecting the environment is an existential exigency for humans, given the impact of environmental degradation on climate change. S2. Scientific consensus has not been achieved with regard to the extent of the contribution of human intervention to climate change. S3. Environmental activism includes climate alarmism and other extremist points of view that often become the focus of climate change deniers. Which of the following relationships based on the statements given above is/are correct? 1. S3 is a counterpoint to S1. 2. S3 is unconnected to S1 and S2. 3. S2 could be the reason for S3. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
S1 concerns protecting the environment while S3 concerns climate alarmism and extremist views within environmental activism, so S3 is neither a counterpoint to S1 nor unconnected to it; relationships 1 and 2 are incorrect. S2, which says scientific consensus on the extent of human contribution is lacking, could be the reason why the alarmist views of S3 become the focus of climate change deniers. Hence only relationship 3 is correct.
Q11·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
In a recruitment process, the selection of candidates is based on their performance in three components. The weightages of the components 1, 2 and 3 are 0.2, 0.3 and 0.5, respectively. Use the data given below and find the cutoff score if exactly three candidates are to be selected: Candidate 1: component 1 = 5, component 2 = 4, component 3 = 6; Candidate 2: component 1 = 4, component 2 = 6, component 3 = 5; Candidate 3: component 1 = 3, component 2 = 2, component 3 = 8; Candidate 4: component 1 = 9, component 2 = 4, component 3 = 3; Candidate 5: component 1 = 8, component 2 = 8, component 3 = 2.
Correct: A
Weighted scores: Candidate 1 = 0.2 x 5 + 0.3 x 4 + 0.5 x 6 = 5.2; Candidate 2 = 0.2 x 4 + 0.3 x 6 + 0.5 x 5 = 5.1; Candidate 3 = 0.2 x 3 + 0.3 x 2 + 0.5 x 8 = 5.2; Candidate 4 = 0.2 x 9 + 0.3 x 4 + 0.5 x 3 = 4.5; Candidate 5 = 0.2 x 8 + 0.3 x 8 + 0.5 x 2 = 5.0. The top three scores are 5.2, 5.2 and 5.1, so the cutoff score for selecting exactly three candidates is 5.1.
Q12·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
A train has to complete a journey of 800 km. If it meets a minor accident, its speed becomes half of the existing speed. If there is a mechanical defect, the speed becomes one-fourth of the existing speed. On its way, the train meets with a minor accident after 200 km; and 400 km thereafter, it develops a mechanical defect. Had the train developed the mechanical defect after 200 km and met the minor accident 400 km thereafter, it would have taken 4 more hours to reach its destination. What was the original speed of the train in km per hour?
Correct: A
200 km/h. Let the original speed be v km/h. In the first case, the train covers 200 km at v, 400 km at v/2 after the accident, and the final 200 km at v/8 after the defect: time = 200/v + 400/(v/2) + 200/(v/8) = 2600/v. In the second case, it covers 200 km at v, 400 km at v/4 after the defect, and the final 200 km at v/8 after the accident: time = 3400/v. The difference is 800/v hours, given as 4 hours. Hence v = 800/4 = 200 km/h.
Q13·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
There are three types of rectangular tiles: 3' 3', 3' 7' and 3' 11'. An area of rectangular shape of dimensions 3' 100' is to be covered using these tiles without breaking them. If x and y are the maximum and minimum numbers of tiles of various sizes, respectively, that can be used to cover the area exactly, then x - y is:
Correct: A
20. The area is 3 x 100 and tile lengths along the 100 side can be 3, 7 or 11. To maximise number of tiles, use as many length-3 tiles as possible: 31 tiles of length 3 plus one length-7 tile gives 32 tiles. To minimise number, use longer tiles: 4 tiles of length 11 and 8 tiles of length 7 gives 12 tiles. Difference x-y = 32-12 = 20.
Q14·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
If ZERO is encoded as ADSN, then how do you encode STOP?
Correct: B
In each pair of letters, the first letter advances by one and the second letter retreats by one: ZE becomes AD (Z wraps to A, E to D) and RO becomes SN (R to S, O to N). Applying the same to STOP: ST becomes TS and OP becomes PO. Hence STOP is encoded as TSPO.
Q15·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
A is a 2-digit number with different digits. B is also a 2-digit number and is obtained by reversing the digits of A. If A - B is a multiple of 27, where A > B, how many such different A's are possible?
Correct: B
Let A = 10a + b and B = 10b + a with a > b. Then A - B = 9(a - b). For this to be a multiple of 27, a - b must be a multiple of 3, i.e., 3, 6 or 9. Since B must be a two-digit number, b cannot be 0. Counting two-digit A with a > b: difference 3 gives (a, b) = (4,1) to (9,6) - 6 values; difference 6 gives (7,1), (8,2), (9,3) - 3 values; difference 9 would require b = 0 and is not allowed. Hence 6 + 3 = 9 such numbers are possible.
Q16·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
An alloy P contains 20% copper and 80% zinc by weight. Another alloy Q contains 60% copper and 40% zinc by weight. A third alloy R is to be prepared from P and @ so that it contains equal amount of copper and zinc. In what ratio should the amounts of P and Q be mixed in order to get R?
Correct: A
1:3. Alloy P has 20% copper and alloy Q has 60% copper. Required alloy has 50% copper. By alligation, P:Q = (60-50):(50-20)=10:30=1:3.
Q17·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
The process by which countries close their labour-productivity gap with the technology leader is based on convergence theory. The convergence model divides economic eras into three phases: the breakaway, the catch-up, and the fine-tuning phase. It also divides economic entities into two categories: the technology leaders and the technology followers. The process begins with the development of a new technology, such as scavenging three million years ago (MYA), hunting—one MYA, farming—12 thousand years ago, and industrial technology—a little more than 200 years ago. During the breakaway phase, the per capita income of the technology leaders (e.g., Western Europe and North America in the industrial era) rises, but is unchanged for the technology followers. In the catch-up phase, the followers adopt the new technology and close their per capita income gap with the technology leaders. In the fine-tuning phase, where participants try to extract the remaining benefits from an increasingly exhausted technology, leaders and followers have similar per capita incomes. Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The convergence model divides nations into three phases of economic progress. 2. At the heart of the convergence theory is the closing of the gap between labour and productivity. 3. Technology leaders typically have arrived earlier at different economic eras. 4. The time period covered by the convergence theory presented herein encompasses, as mentioned, 4012200 years. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: B
The passage says the convergence model divides economic eras, not nations, into three phases, so statement 1 is incorrect. The closing of the labour-productivity gap with the technology leader is at the heart of convergence theory, so statement 2 is correct. The breakaway, catch-up and fine-tuning pattern means technology leaders have arrived earlier at different economic eras, so statement 3 is correct. The figure 4012200 years is not the time period mentioned in the passage, so statement 4 is incorrect. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Q18·CSAT·2026·Logical Reasoning
The process by which countries close their labour-productivity gap with the technology leader is based on convergence theory. The convergence model divides economic eras into three phases: the breakaway, the catch-up, and the fine-tuning phase. It also divides economic entities into two categories: the technology leaders and the technology followers. The process begins with the development of a new technology, such as scavenging three million years ago (MYA), hunting—one MYA, farming—12 thousand years ago, and industrial technology—a little more than 200 years ago. During the breakaway phase, the per capita income of the technology leaders (e.g., Western Europe and North America in the industrial era) rises, but is unchanged for the technology followers. In the catch-up phase, the followers adopt the new technology and close their per capita income gap with the technology leaders. In the fine-tuning phase, where participants try to extract the remaining benefits from an increasingly exhausted technology, leaders and followers have similar per capita incomes. Question: Which of the following conclusions are correct? 1. In the breakaway phase, economic progress is slow for the technology followers. 2. In the catch-up phase, leaders stagnate and followers, therefore, close the gap between them and the leaders. 3. In the fine-tuning phase, technology is exhausted, as it were, and both leaders and followers attempt to extract leftover benefits, leading to more or less similar per capita income levels. 4. Industrial technology followed scavenging, which preceded farming. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: A
In the breakaway phase, the per capita income of followers is unchanged - not merely slow - so conclusion 1 is incorrect. In the catch-up phase, followers adopt the new technology and close the gap; leaders do not stagnate, so conclusion 2 is incorrect. In the fine-tuning phase, participants extract remaining benefits from an exhausted technology with similar per capita incomes, so conclusion 3 is correct. The passage lists scavenging (3 MYA), hunting, farming (12 thousand years ago) and industrial technology (about 200 years ago), so industrial technology followed scavenging, which preceded farming, and conclusion 4 is correct. Hence conclusions 3 and 4 are correct.
Q19·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Was it the sun-dappled ambience, the strawberries and cream, the frustration of Flavio Cobolli's unforced errors against Serbian Novak Djokovic on Centre Court or simply the crushing weight of being a 64-year-old man in the third act of a very public life? Whatever the reason, Hugh Grant, the actor, deserves empathy. There he was, in the Royal Box at Wimbledon, flanked by Britain's well-dressed and well-rested spectators, watching the men's singles quarterfinals, when the actor did something quietly radical: head at a tilt, eyes closed, utterly unbothered, he took a nap. So praise be to Grant for serving up an unexpected ace. In that small, delicious moment, he didn't merely catch forty winks, he made an elegant case for surrender. Not to laziness, but to limits. To the body's quiet wisdom over society's relentless performance metrics. Wimbledon had its tennis. The perpetually sleep-deprived discovered a leading man, not of action, but of rest. Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Hugh Grant was watching, from the Royal Box, the men's semifinal match on Centre Court between Flavio Cobolli and Novak Djokovic. 2. The phrase 'unexpected ace' in the context uses a term from the game of tennis to highlight Hugh Grant's somewhat uncharacteristic act of catching 'forty winks'; an act that is viewed with opprobrium. 3. Grant subjects the demands of society to the wisdom of his body. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: B
The passage says Grant watched the men's singles quarterfinals, not the semifinal, so statement 1 is incorrect. The 'unexpected ace' was celebrated ("praise be to Grant"), not viewed with opprobrium, so statement 2 is incorrect. The passage says Grant chose the body's quiet wisdom over society's relentless performance metrics, so statement 3 is correct. Hence only statement 3 is correct.
Q20·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Was it the sun-dappled ambience, the strawberries and cream, the frustration of Flavio Cobolli's unforced errors against Serbian Novak Djokovic on Centre Court or simply the crushing weight of being a 64-year-old man in the third act of a very public life? Whatever the reason, Hugh Grant, the actor, deserves empathy. There he was, in the Royal Box at Wimbledon, flanked by Britain's well-dressed and well-rested spectators, watching the men's singles quarterfinals, when the actor did something quietly radical: head at a tilt, eyes closed, utterly unbothered, he took a nap. So praise be to Grant for serving up an unexpected ace. In that small, delicious moment, he didn't merely catch forty winks, he made an elegant case for surrender. Not to laziness, but to limits. To the body's quiet wisdom over society's relentless performance metrics. Wimbledon had its tennis. The perpetually sleep-deprived discovered a leading man, not of action, but of rest. Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Radical action can also be attributed to mild surrender where one acts against societal expectations. 2. Submitting to one's limitations, given the effect of age and other factors, ought not to be conflated with laziness. 3. 'Leading man' usually refers to one who plays the lead role in a movie; in this instance the implication is that Hugh Grant is performing the role of not an action hero, but that of a resting one! Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
The passage calls Grant's nap "quietly radical" - an elegant case for surrender, so statement 1 is correct. It distinguishes surrendering to limits from laziness, so statement 2 is correct. It calls Grant "a leading man, not of action, but of rest", so statement 3 is correct. Hence all three statements are correct.
Q21·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
If x and y are two digits and the number 4x5y790 is divisible by 11, then what is the remainder, if x+y is divided by 11?
Correct: D
7. For divisibility by 11, the difference between sums of alternate digits must be a multiple of 11. In 4x5y790, alternate sums are 4+5+7+0 = 16 and x+y+9. Thus 16-(x+y+9)=7-(x+y) must be 0, 11 or -11. Valid digit solutions give x+y ≡ 7 mod 11. Therefore the remainder when x+y is divided by 11 is 7.
Q22·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
If the product of the HCF and LCM of two distinct numbers is the cube of one of the numbers, then which of the following statements is/are correct? I. The difference of the numbers is an even number. II. One of the numbers is a perfect square. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
HCF x LCM = the product of the two numbers. If this product is the cube of one of them, say a^3, then the other number is a^2. So the numbers are a and a^2. Their difference a^2 - a = a(a - 1) is the product of two consecutive integers, hence even (I correct), and one number is a perfect square (II correct). Hence both statements are correct.
Q23·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
The ratio of male to female workers in two companies A and B is 13:10 and 7:5, respectively. If both the companies have the same number of female workers, then what is the ratio of the total number of workers in A to those in B?
Correct: B
23:24. Let female workers in both companies be 10k and 5m respectively. Since female workers are equal, choose common female count 10 units for A and 10 units for B. Then A has males 13 and females 10, total 23. B's ratio 7:5 means females 10 correspond to males 14, total 24. Ratio of total workers A:B = 23:24.
Q24·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
In a sequence of numbers, each number other than the first two is the sum of the two immediately preceding numbers from it. If the first two numbers in the sequence are 4 and 7, then the sixth number is:
Correct: D
47. The sequence starts 4, 7. Each later term is the sum of the two immediately preceding terms: third = 11, fourth = 18, fifth = 29, sixth = 47.
Q25·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
A person facing the East travels 4 km straight and then turns right and travels 3 km, then further turns left and travels 2 km and finally turns left and travels 3 km. The minimum distance between the final point and the initial point, and the direction in which the person is facing at the final point are, respectively
Correct: D
6 km, North. Start facing east. Move 4 km east, turn right and move 3 km south, turn left and move 2 km east, then turn left and move 3 km north. Net displacement is 6 km east and 0 km north-south, so the distance is 6 km and the final facing direction is north.
Q26·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Cattle from the nearby villages came to the common ground to graze, and there was still a cool freshness in the air. Hori took several deep breaths and thought of sitting down for a while, since he'd be dying of heat in the scorching 'loo' wind the rest of the day. A number of farmers were eager to lease this bit of land and had offered a good price, but Rai Sahib—God bless him—had plainly told them it was reserved for grazing and would not be relinquished for any price. If he'd been one of those selfish Zamindars, he'd have said the cattle could go to hell, that there was no reason for him to miss the chance to make a little money. But the Rai Sahib still held to the old values, feeling that any landlord who didn't look after his tenants was less than human. Question: Which of the following statements are not correct? 1. The landholdings of Rai Sahib were currently not being used for farming. 2. Temperamentally, Rai Sahib was as greedy as other landlords. 3. It cannot be ascertained that Rai Sahib could have made some money by leasing out the grazing land. 4. It may be asserted that Rai Sahib valued his tenants and wanted to protect their livelihood. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
The passage says the grazing land was reserved for grazing by Rai Sahib and was being used by village cattle, so statement 1 is not correct. Rai Sahib was explicitly NOT like the selfish Zamindars, so statement 2 is not correct. Farmers had offered a good price, so it can be ascertained that he could have made money, making statement 3 not correct. The passage says he held that a landlord who did not look after his tenants was less than human, so statement 4 is correct. Hence statements 1, 2 and 3 are not correct.
Q27·CSAT·2026·Logical Reasoning
Cattle from the nearby villages came to the common ground to graze, and there was still a cool freshness in the air. Hori took several deep breaths and thought of sitting down for a while, since he'd be dying of heat in the scorching 'loo' wind the rest of the day. A number of farmers were eager to lease this bit of land and had offered a good price, but Rai Sahib—God bless him—had plainly told them it was reserved for grazing and would not be relinquished for any price. If he'd been one of those selfish Zamindars, he'd have said the cattle could go to hell, that there was no reason for him to miss the chance to make a little money. But the Rai Sahib still held to the old values, feeling that any landlord who didn't look after his tenants was less than human. Question: Which of the following conclusions is/are correct? 1. All landlords essentially have some goodness trapped within them. 2. The common grazing grounds of village are intended for use by the cattle of that village. 3. Landlords who believe in tradition tend to be more concerned about their tenants. 4. Winds later in the day tend to be cooler post the hot winds of the morning. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
The passage describes Rai Sahib specifically, not all landlords, so conclusion 1 is not valid. It describes cattle grazing on the common ground but does not establish that the ground is intended for the cattle of that village, so conclusion 2 is not valid. Rai Sahib "held to the old values" and cared for his tenants, supporting conclusion 3. The passage says the rest of the day would be scorching hot ("loo" wind), so conclusion 4 is not valid. Hence only conclusion 3 is valid.
Q28·CSAT·2026·Reading Comprehension
Previous waves of customer-service technology, including email and those pesky voice menus, stoked concerns of job losses, only for them to fail to materialise. AI could yet prove different. And if it does, its effects may be salutary. Human agents could be freed up to spend more time on creative and rewarding tasks, like using feedback to make products and services better and thereby spend less time listening to irate customers. Question: Which of the following conclusions, made on the basis of the given passage, is/are correct? 1. The advent of new customer-service technology had invariably sparked fears about job losses. 2. Often it is found that instead of job losses, alternative channels for employee engagement are discovered while certain tasks are replaced by technology. 3. The advent of technology inevitably leads to stressful outcomes. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
The passage says previous waves of customer-service technology stoked concerns of job losses that failed to materialise, and that AI could free human agents for more creative and rewarding tasks. Hence conclusions 1 and 2 follow; conclusion 3 (inevitable stress) is not supported.
Q29·CSAT·2026·Reading Comprehension
Previous waves of customer-service technology, including email and those pesky voice menus, stoked concerns of job losses, only for them to fail to materialise. AI could yet prove different. And if it does, its effects may be salutary. Human agents could be freed up to spend more time on creative and rewarding tasks, like using feedback to make products and services better and thereby spend less time listening to irate customers. Question: Which one among the following statements most appropriately reflects the point of view of the given passage?
Correct: C
The passage suggests that if AI takes over routine customer service, humans could be redirected to more creative, rewarding tasks. Hence the value of human intervention in the workplace affected by AI might be enhanced through redirection towards more fulfilling tasks.
Q30·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
Seven cubes are identical in shape. Out of these, the weight of each of the six cubes is equal and the weight of the remaining cube is less than the weight of any other cube. A balance is used to identify the lightest cube. What is the minimum number of attempts required to distinguish the odd cube with certainty?
Correct: A
Weigh three cubes against three. If they balance, the cube left out is the light one. If not, take the lighter group of three: weigh one cube against another; if they balance, the third cube is light, otherwise the lighter of the two is identified. Hence 2 attempts suffice, and with 7 cubes fewer attempts cannot guarantee certainty.
Q31·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
X travels 6 km on a bicycle with average speeds of 5 km per hour, 10 km per hour and 4 km per hour during the first 1 km, the next 2 km and the remaining 3 km, respectively. Y travels the same distances with average speeds of 4 km per hour, 10 km per hour and 5 km per hour, respectively. How many minutes early will Y complete the journey if both X and Y start at the same time?
How many times does 5 appear in all two-digit positive integers?
Correct: B
19. In two-digit positive integers from 10 to 99, digit 5 appears 10 times in the tens place: 50 to 59. It appears 9 times in the units place: 15,25,35,45,55,65,75,85,95. The number 55 contributes two appearances and is already counted once in each place, as it should be. Total appearances = 10 + 9 = 19.
Q33·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Consider the following statements: Every red is blue. Every blue is green. Every green is yellow. Which of the following statements denoted by P, Q and R are correct? P. Every blue is yellow. Q. Every red is green. R. Every red is yellow. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
Since every red is blue, every blue is green and every green is yellow, by transitivity every blue is yellow (P), every red is green (Q) and every red is yellow (R). Hence P, Q and R are all correct.
Q34·CSAT·2026·Reading Comprehension
The key source of the battle for clean skies and clear lungs is the fuel we burn-from household Chulhas to the thermal power plants. In most cases, it is biomass or coal. The Supreme Court banned the use of pet coke-the dirtiest of such fuels. The Delhi Government banned the use of coal, which was later extended to the entire National Capital Region. It was also agreed that the thermal power plants would clean up or shut down. Action on this has been patchy to say the least. The lesson from the transition to CNG is that people need alternatives for a ban to be effective. When diesel buses were stopped, CNG supply had to be assured. It also had to be feasible in terms of cost. The Supreme Court agreed that fiscal measures were needed to keep clean fuel cheaper than dirty fuel. Now even as coal is banned, the price of natural gas makes industry uncompetitive. Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Thermal power stations in Delhi were required to summarily shut down. 2. CNG supplies had to be assured once diesel vehicles were prohibited from plying. 3. The Supreme Court banned the use of coal across the National Capital Region. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
The passage says thermal power plants would "clean up or shut down", not summarily shut down, so statement 1 is incorrect. It says CNG supply had to be assured when diesel buses were stopped, so statement 2 is correct. Coal was banned by the Delhi Government (later extended to the NCR), not by the Supreme Court, so statement 3 is incorrect. Hence only statement 2 is correct.
Q35·CSAT·2026·Reading Comprehension
The key source of the battle for clean skies and clear lungs is the fuel we burn-from household Chulhas to the thermal power plants. In most cases, it is biomass or coal. The Supreme Court banned the use of pet coke-the dirtiest of such fuels. The Delhi Government banned the use of coal, which was later extended to the entire National Capital Region. It was also agreed that the thermal power plants would clean up or shut down. Action on this has been patchy to say the least. The lesson from the transition to CNG is that people need alternatives for a ban to be effective. When diesel buses were stopped, CNG supply had to be assured. It also had to be feasible in terms of cost. The Supreme Court agreed that fiscal measures were needed to keep clean fuel cheaper than dirty fuel. Now even as coal is banned, the price of natural gas makes industry uncompetitive. Question: Which of the following inferences is/are correct? 1. The source of the energy we consume is the key to the battle for cleaner air. 2. Bans are effective where the will is strong and the people are convinced that such bans are for the greater good of society. 3. There is judicial approval for a policy that intervenes fiscally to facilitate benevolent pricing for cleaner fuel. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
The opening line says the key source of the battle for clean skies is the fuel we burn, so inference 1 is correct. The passage does not say bans work where the will is strong and people are convinced, so inference 2 is not correct. The Supreme Court agreed that fiscal measures were needed to keep clean fuel cheaper, so inference 3 is correct. Hence inferences 1 and 3 are correct.
Q36·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
How many three-digit numbers can be expressed as an integral power of 2?
Correct: C
3. Three-digit powers of 2 are 128, 256 and 512. The next one, 1024, is four-digit, and the previous one, 64, is two-digit. Hence there are 3 such numbers.
Q37·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
P has a son and a daughter. S is the mother of T. S is R's spouse. Q and R are children of P. Then how is Q related to S?
Correct: D
S is the mother of T, so S is female and R, the spouse of S, is male. Since Q and R are the children of P and P has a son and a daughter, R is the son and Q is the daughter. Hence Q is the sister of R, i.e., the sister of the husband of S.
Q38·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A person saves 10% of his salary every month. If his salary increases by 12% and the expenditure increases by 10%, then what will be the change in his saving per month?
Correct: B
Take the salary as 100: saving = 10, expenditure = 90. New salary = 112, new expenditure = 90 x 1.1 = 99, so new saving = 112 - 99 = 13. The saving rises from 10 to 13, a 30% increase.
Q39·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
The digit in the unit place of the number 6^129 x 7^307 is:
Correct: C
8. The units digit of 6^129 is always 6. Powers of 7 have units cycle 7,9,3,1; since 307 leaves remainder 3 when divided by 4, 7^307 has units digit 3. Product units digit = 6 x 3 = 18, so the units digit is 8.
Q40·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
An explosion takes place at a certain distance from an army camp. As soon as the sensor in the camp receives the sound of the explosion, a drone starts flying towards the spot of explosion. The drone clicks a picture from the spot and the camp receives it at the same time. Immediately another drone starts flying to the spot and it also sends a picture as soon as it reaches the spot. The two pictures were received at 5:02 PM and 5:05 PM, respectively. If the speed of the drones is 30 m/s, at what time did the explosion take place? Assume that the speed of sound is 300 m/s.
Correct: C
4:58:42 PM. Let the distance of the explosion spot from the camp be d metres. The second drone starts at 5:02 PM and its picture is received at 5:05 PM, so it takes 3 minutes = 180 seconds to reach the spot. At 30 m/s, d = 30 x 180 = 5400 m. Sound from the explosion takes 5400/300 = 18 seconds to reach the camp. The first drone then takes 180 seconds to reach the spot. Therefore the first picture is received 18+180 = 198 seconds after the explosion. Since that receipt time is 5:02 PM, the explosion occurred at 5:02:00 - 3:18 = 4:58:42 PM.
Q41·CSAT·2026·Logical Reasoning
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, or the JJ Act, 2015 allows for the possibility for trying adolescents above 16 as adults if they are accused of committing a heinous offence. A heinous offence is one with a minimum punishment of seven years. Offences such as culpable homicide and causing death by negligence, which are common in drunken driving cases, are not heinous offences because they do not have a prescribed minimum punishment. The JJ Act, amended in 2021, now categorises an offence that has no minimum sentence, but has a maximum sentence of seven years or more as a serious offence which nonetheless, in the opinion of activists, does not merit the transfer of a case to the adult criminal justice system. Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. If an offence has no minimum prescribed punishment, it cannot be considered heinous as per the JJ Act, 2015. 2. As per the JJ Act, 2021, an offence for which there is a provision for a maximum sentence of seven years or more, but no minimum sentence, is to be considered a serious offence. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
The JJ Act, 2015 defines a heinous offence as one with a minimum punishment of seven years, so an offence with no minimum prescribed punishment cannot be considered heinous (statement 1 correct). The 2021 amendment categorises an offence with no minimum sentence but a maximum sentence of seven years or more as a serious offence (statement 2 correct). Hence both statements are correct.
Q42·CSAT·2026·Logical Reasoning
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, or the JJ Act, 2015 allows for the possibility for trying adolescents above 16 as adults if they are accused of committing a heinous offence. A heinous offence is one with a minimum punishment of seven years. Offences such as culpable homicide and causing death by negligence, which are common in drunken driving cases, are not heinous offences because they do not have a prescribed minimum punishment. The JJ Act, amended in 2021, now categorises an offence that has no minimum sentence, but has a maximum sentence of seven years or more as a serious offence which nonetheless, in the opinion of activists, does not merit the transfer of a case to the adult criminal justice system. Question: Which of the following conclusions is/are valid? 1. Only a serious offence as categorised by the revised JJ Act, justifies the transfer of a case to the adult judicial system. 2. The JJ Act, 2021, categorises an offence as a serious offence based on the maximum sentence it carries, rather than on the minimum sentence. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: B
The passage says activists hold that the new "serious offence" category does not merit the transfer of a case to the adult criminal justice system, so conclusion 1 is not valid. The JJ Act, 2021 does categorise an offence as serious based on the maximum sentence (seven years or more) when there is no minimum sentence, so conclusion 2 is valid. Hence only conclusion 2 is valid.
Q43·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
In an objective type question paper, 5 marks are awarded for a correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for a wrong answer. A student attempted all the questions and got a score of 69. Had he been awarded 4 marks for a correct answer and 1 mark deducted for a wrong answer, he would have scored 84. How many questions were there in the question paper?
Correct: B
81. Let c be the number of correct answers and w be the number of wrong answers. From the first marking scheme, 5c - 2w = 69. From the second, 4c - w = 84. Doubling the second equation gives 8c - 2w = 168. Subtracting the first equation gives 3c = 99, so c = 33. Then 4 x 33 - w = 84, so w = 48. Total questions attempted = 33 + 48 = 81.
Q44·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
X and Y are two runners who run for the same duration of time on the same circular track. They started running at the same time in the same direction with uniform speeds. When X completed 7 rounds, Y did exactly 5. After completing 5 rounds, Y changed his direction and started running in the opposite direction with speed which is double of his earlier speed. On the other hand, X continued to run with the same speed. They stopped running when X completed exactly 21 rounds. How many times did X and Y meet after they had started and before they finally stopped?
Correct: A
Let the time for X to run 7 rounds be one unit, so X's speed is 7 and Y's is 5 rounds per unit. In the first unit, X gains 2 rounds on Y and overtakes him twice (at relative distances of 1 and 2 rounds). After Y reverses and doubles his speed, the relative speed becomes 7 + 10 = 17 rounds per unit over the remaining 2 units, i.e., 34 relative rounds, with meetings at relative distances 1/17 to 34/17 rounds. The 34th meeting coincides exactly with the final stop, so 33 meetings occur before stopping. Total meetings = 2 + 33 = 35.
Q45·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
There are four statements X, Y, Z and W. Their relations are as follows If X is incorrect, then so is Z; if Y is incorrect, then W is correct; if W is correct, then X is incorrect. Which of the following is/are correct? I. If X is correct, then so is Y. II. If Z is correct, then it is not necessary that Y is correct. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: A
If X is correct, Y cannot be incorrect: were Y incorrect, W would be correct, which would make X incorrect - a contradiction. So I is correct. If Z is correct, then X is correct (contrapositive of the first condition), and then Y is correct by I - so it IS necessary that Y is correct, making II incorrect. Hence only I is correct.
Q46·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G travel by three cars X, Y, Z. A and another two of them travel by X. Only E travels with G. C travels by Z, but B does not travel by Y. Besides, A and B do not travel by the same car. Then which of the following are correct? I. No one travels alone. II. Only D travels with F. III. Only C travels with B. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: B
Car X carries A with two others. B cannot be in X (A and B do not travel by the same car) and B does not travel by Y, so B is in Z; C is also in Z, so only C travels with B (III). E and G travel together, and the remaining persons D and F fill car X with A, so no one travels alone (I). D and F share car X with A, so it is not true that only D travels with F (II). Hence I and III are correct.
Q47·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
Two identical straight rods are painted in five distinct colours so that each of them gets divided into five equal parts along the length. In one of them, the portions are marked P1, P2, P3, P4 and P5 (not necessarily in that order) whereas in the other, they are marked Q1, Q2, Q3, Q4 and Q5 (not necessarily in that order). When the rods are kept parallel to each other side by side, P1 and Q3 match, P4 matches Q1 or Q2, and Q4 matches P3 or P5. If Q3 and Q5 are adjacent, which of the following is/are possible? I. Q3 is marked at the middle portion of the straight rod. II. P2 is marked at one of the extreme portions of the straight rod. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: C
Both I and II. Treat matching/adjacency as positional alignment when the rods are kept side by side. The conditions can be satisfied with Q3 in the middle: for example, arrange the first rod positions as P2, P3, P1, P4, P5 and the second rod positions as Q1, Q5, Q3, Q2, Q4. Here Q3 is in the middle and the stated alignments hold. The conditions can also be satisfied with P2 at an extreme: for example, arrange the first rod as P1, P3, P4, P5, P2 and the second rod as Q3, Q5, Q1, Q4, Q2. Hence both statements are possible.
Q48·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
P, Q, R, S and T are ranked 1 to 5 (not necessarily in that order). The rank of P is 4, the rank of Q is not 5, the rank of R is 1, the rank of S is not 2, the rank of T is not 3. Then which of the following is/are correct? I. If the rank of S is 3, then that of T is 2. II. If the rank of Q is 3, then that of T is 5. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
With P = 4 and R = 1, the remaining ranks are 2, 3 and 5 for Q, S and T. If S = 3, then Q cannot be 5, so Q = 2 and T = 5 - not 2. Hence I is not correct. If Q = 3, then S cannot be 2, so S = 5 and T = 2 - not 5. Hence II is not correct. Therefore neither statement is correct.
Q49·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
India is starting to deploy AI for critical use cases such as weather forecasting, pest detection and control, and crop yield optimisation. However, penetration is limited to a small subset of tech-savvy farmers. In the US and in Europe, generative AI tools have started offering precision farming at scale, integrating large datasets to provide real-time agronomic insights. For at-scale integration and accessibility of AI tools in India, it would be helpful to develop Indian languages-based AI tools for smallholder farmers, partner with AgTechs to create affordable AI solutions, and disseminate AI-based advisory services through government programmes. Question: Which of the following statements is/are not correct? 1. Tech-savvy farmers will drive the AgTech companies of the future. 2. The development of advisory services by the government programmes for the use of AI tools in agriculture would be helpful. 3. In the US and Europe, AI tools have replaced traditional agricultural practices. 4. The integration of large datasets for use in real-time agronomic analysis is already a reality. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: A
1 and 3 only are not correct. Statement 1 is not supported because the passage says current penetration is limited to tech-savvy farmers; it does not say they will drive future AgTech companies. Statement 2 is correct because the passage says AI-based advisory services through government programmes would be helpful. Statement 3 is not correct because the passage says AI tools have started offering precision farming in the US and Europe, not that they have replaced traditional agricultural practices. Statement 4 is correct because the passage refers to integrating large datasets to provide real-time agronomic insights.
Q50·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
India is starting to deploy AI for critical use cases such as weather forecasting, pest detection and control, and crop yield optimisation. However, penetration is limited to a small subset of tech-savvy farmers. In the US and in Europe, generative AI tools have started offering precision farming at scale, integrating large datasets to provide real-time agronomic insights. For at-scale integration and accessibility of AI tools in India, it would be helpful to develop Indian languages-based AI tools for smallholder farmers, partner with AgTechs to create affordable AI solutions, and disseminate AI-based advisory services through government programmes. Question: Which of the following assumptions is/are valid? 1. Agricultural productivity has marched ahead in the West because of the economies of scale facilitated by the adoption of AI tools. 2. Affordable AI tools rendered available in local languages can help AI-based solutions reach more and more small farmers. 3. Though penetration is as yet low, critical application areas deploying AI tools are already in use in India. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is not a valid assumption because the passage says AI tools have started offering precision farming at scale in the US and Europe, but it does not assume that Western agricultural productivity has marched ahead because of economies of scale. Statement 2 is valid because the passage recommends Indian-language AI tools and affordable solutions for smallholder farmers, assuming that such access can help AI-based solutions reach more small farmers. Statement 3 is also valid because the passage states that India is starting to deploy AI for weather forecasting, pest detection and crop-yield optimisation, though penetration is limited.
Q51·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
Suppose x, y and z are variables taking positive real numbers as their possible values. It is given that y is directly proportional to x^2 and x is inversely proportional to z. For z = 7/25, the values of x and y are 5 and 50, respectively. If y = 98, what is z equal to?
Correct: B
1/5. Since y is directly proportional to x^2, y=kx^2. Given x=5 and y=50, k=2. Thus y=2x^2. If y=98, then x^2=49 and x=7. Also x is inversely proportional to z, so xz is constant. Given x=5 and z=7/25, constant = 5 x 7/25 = 7/5. Therefore z = (7/5)/7 = 1/5.
Q52·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Three variables x, y and z take values 2, 3, 4 or 5 such that their values are always distinct. If M and N denote the largest possible value and the smallest possible value, respectively, for the expression {(x*y) + z}; then M - N is:
Correct: C
To maximise x*y + z with distinct values from {2, 3, 4, 5}, use x*y = 4 x 5 = 20 and z = 3, giving M = 23. To minimise, use x*y = 2 x 3 = 6 and z = 4, giving N = 10. Hence M - N = 13.
Q53·CSAT·2026·Reading Comprehension
When SARS-CoV-2 was first detected in 2019, it was a truly novel virus for the world. At that time, no one in the world had been exposed to SARS-CoV-2 or had specific immunity against it. In contrast, people across the world have been exposed to HMPV for decades and the virus is well-studied. HMPV and SARS-CoV-2 belong to two very different virus families with fundamentally different characteristics and epidemiology, with strong seasonality seen in HMPV, unlike SARS-CoV-2. Both viruses cause different severity of symptoms, particularly over the long term, and the affected population segments do not fully overlap. In general, HMPV causes milder illness with deaths being very rare and with no long-term post-viral symptoms. Question: Which of the following statements reflect the logical and rational inferences that can be drawn from the passage? 1. HMPV has, historically, had longer documentation of studies when compared with SARS-CoV-2. 2. The two viruses are different from each other and this results in markedly different outcomes amongst those affected. 3. Long-term impacts of the two viruses are dissimilar and this is an important differentiator between them. 4. One of the common factors between the two viruses is seasonal specificity. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: B
The passage says HMPV has been studied for decades while SARS-CoV-2 was novel, so inference 1 follows. The two viruses belong to very different families with different characteristics, so inference 2 follows. Their long-term impacts are dissimilar, so inference 3 follows. Seasonality is strong in HMPV unlike SARS-CoV-2, so inference 4 is wrong. Hence inferences 1, 2 and 3.
Q54·CSAT·2026·Reading Comprehension
When SARS-CoV-2 was first detected in 2019, it was a truly novel virus for the world. At that time, no one in the world had been exposed to SARS-CoV-2 or had specific immunity against it. In contrast, people across the world have been exposed to HMPV for decades and the virus is well-studied. HMPV and SARS-CoV-2 belong to two very different virus families with fundamentally different characteristics and epidemiology, with strong seasonality seen in HMPV, unlike SARS-CoV-2. Both viruses cause different severity of symptoms, particularly over the long term, and the affected population segments do not fully overlap. In general, HMPV causes milder illness with deaths being very rare and with no long-term post-viral symptoms. Question: Which of the following reflect the intent of the writer in the above passage? 1. To evolve methodologies for objective analysis of the two viruses 2. To establish the epidemiological similarities and differences between the two viruses 3. To offer a better understanding of the remedies of HMPV when analysed in conjunction with SARS-CoV-2 Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
The passage is an informational comparison of the two viruses; it does not aim to evolve methodologies for objective analysis, nor does it discuss remedies of HMPV in conjunction with SARS-CoV-2. Even the comparison of similarities and differences is incidental rather than the writer's stated intent. Hence none of the options reflects the intent of the writer.
Q55·CSAT·2026·Reading Comprehension
When SARS-CoV-2 was first detected in 2019, it was a truly novel virus for the world. At that time, no one in the world had been exposed to SARS-CoV-2 or had specific immunity against it. In contrast, people across the world have been exposed to HMPV for decades and the virus is well-studied. HMPV and SARS-CoV-2 belong to two very different virus families with fundamentally different characteristics and epidemiology, with strong seasonality seen in HMPV, unlike SARS-CoV-2. Both viruses cause different severity of symptoms, particularly over the long term, and the affected population segments do not fully overlap. In general, HMPV causes milder illness with deaths being very rare and with no long-term post-viral symptoms. Question: Which of the following conclusions is/are valid? 1. Though SARS-CoV-2 and HMPV are similar viruses with somewhat different epidemiology, the former became a pandemic because it was novel and people had not been exposed to it in the past. 2. The two viruses have fundamentally different impacts on human populations and should not therefore be dealt with in a similar manner. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: B
The passage says the two viruses belong to very different families, so conclusion 1 (calling them similar viruses) is not valid. It says the viruses have fundamentally different characteristics, epidemiology and impacts, so they should not be dealt with in a similar manner, and conclusion 2 is valid. Hence only conclusion 2 is valid.
Q56·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
The class average x in a test increases by 4 when the score of a student is rectified, whose corrected score is 100 instead of 0. Later, the score of another student was found to have been recorded as 81 in place of 56. If there are no other corrections and the final corrected average is y, then y- x is:
Correct: B
3. The first correction changes a score from 0 to 100, so the total increases by 100. Since the class average increases by 4, number of students = 100/4 = 25. The second correction changes 81 to 56, reducing total by 25; this reduces the average by 25/25 = 1. Thus final corrected average y is 3 more than x, so y - x = 3.
Q57·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
A cut on a solid object divides the object into two parts where the new surfaces thus produced are plane. On the other hand, one single cut can be used to cut more than one object at a time. In an experiment, the total number of pieces produced by applying n cuts is denoted by x_n. The experiment is performed on a solid cube where pieces remain unmoved after each cut. In this experiment, if after the third cut, the pieces are identical, then which of the following is not a possible value for x_4?
Correct: A
16. After three cuts, the pieces are identical and remain unmoved. Typical identical partitions of a cube after three cuts can be slabs, a grid of six pieces, or eight smaller cuboidal pieces. A fourth plane cut can increase the number of pieces only by the number of existing pieces it actually intersects. It cannot intersect and split all eight cuboidal pieces produced by three mutually perpendicular cuts, so 16 pieces is not possible. Values such as 5, 8 and 12 can be obtained from suitable slab/grid arrangements. Therefore 16 is the value that is not possible.
Q58·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
There are four types of weights, namely kg, 2 kg, 5 kg and 10 kg. What is the maximum number of different ways one can measure 20 kg, if at least eight but not more than eleven weights of 1 kg are to be used while measuring?
Correct: B
8. Let the number of 1 kg weights be between 8 and 11. Count non-negative solutions of a + 2b + 5c + 10d = 20 with a in {8,9,10,11}. The valid combinations are 8 in total: (8,1,0,1), (8,1,2,0), (8,6,0,0), (9,3,1,0), (10,0,0,1), (10,0,2,0), (10,5,0,0), and (11,2,1,0).
Q59·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
What is the minimum number of times one needs to measure to get 298 litres of water from a tank, if the measuring cylinders have capacities 1 litre, 6 litres, 25 litres and 100 litres?
Correct: B
5. To get 298 litres with 100, 25, 6 and 1 litre measures, use three 100-litre measurements to get 300 litres, then remove two 1-litre measurements. Total measurements = 3 + 2 = 5. Four measurements cannot make 298 from the available capacities.
Q60·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
For 1/3 < x < y < 2, which of the following statements is/are always correct? I. x + 1/x < y + 1/y. II. sqrt(1 + y^2) / y < sqrt(1 + x^2) / x. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: B
Consider f(t) = t + 1/t. It decreases on (0, 1) and increases on (1, 2), so with 1/3 < x < y < 2, statement I is not always true - for example, x = 1/2, y = 3/2 gives 2.5 > 2.17. Statement II: sqrt(1 + y^2)/y = sqrt(1 + 1/y^2), and since y > x > 0, 1/y^2 < 1/x^2, so the left side is always smaller. Hence only statement II is correct.
Q61·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
The speed of a train T is 100 km per hour and the speed of a person P is 4 km per hour. T crosses P in 15 seconds, if P travels along the direction of motion of T. If P travels along the opposite direction of T, then in how much time does T cross P, in seconds, approximately?
Correct: C
13.85. When the person moves in the same direction, relative speed = 100-4 = 96 km/hr = 26.67 m/s. Since crossing takes 15 s, train length = 26.67 x 15 = 400 m. In the opposite direction, relative speed = 100+4 = 104 km/hr = 28.89 m/s. Time = 400/28.89 = 13.85 s approximately.
Q62·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
If 10^m x 1000 x n = 75^25 x 25^32 x 32^75, where n is not divisible by 10, then the value of m is:
Correct: B
111. This is a trailing-zero/factorisation question. 75^25 = (3 x 5^2)^25 gives 5^50, 25^32 gives 5^64, and 32^75 = (2^5)^75 gives 2^375. Total powers are 2^375 and 5^(50+64) = 5^114. Thus the product contains 10^114. Since the expression already separates a factor 1000 = 10^3, the remaining 10^m has m = 114 - 3 = 111.
Q63·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
A pattern formed by two characters a and b is repeated more than once in the following string: xbxaxaxxaxaxbab. What is xx in the 7th and 8th positions from the left in the above string?
Correct: D
The given a's and b's (positions 2, 4, 6, 9, 11, 13, 14 and 15) match the pattern abbab repeated three times: abbab-abbab-abbab. Filling the blank positions accordingly, the 7th and 8th positions from the left are both b. Hence the answer is bb.
Q64·CSAT·2026·Logical Reasoning
How is deflation done? Most countries use a method called 'double deflation', where input and output prices are deflated separately. Consider a manufacturer importing oil for use in production. If oil prices fall, output prices do not and quantities remain the same, real value added should not change. But if the same deflator is used for inputs and outputs, as in India, it would look as if the manufacturer had become more productive. Question: Which of the following assumptions is/are valid? 1. Deflation strategies can be used to make manufacturers appear to be doing better than they actually are. 2. When input and output prices are both deflated against a single input price, it is referred to as 'double deflation'. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: A
The passage shows that using the same deflator for inputs and outputs makes a manufacturer look more productive when input prices fall, so assumption 1 is valid. Double deflation means deflating input and output prices separately, not deflating both against a single input price, so assumption 2 is not valid. Hence only assumption 1 is valid.
Q65·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
How is deflation done? Most countries use a method called 'double deflation', where input and output prices are deflated separately. Consider a manufacturer importing oil for use in production. If oil prices fall, output prices do not and quantities remain the same, real value added should not change. But if the same deflator is used for inputs and outputs, as in India, it would look as if the manufacturer had become more productive. Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Real value should not change in the instance of static output cost and unchanged quantities against falling oil prices. 2. Deflators are to be used separately for inputs and outputs, and this is a practice universally adopted by all economies. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
The passage says real value added - not "real value" - should not change when output prices and quantities are static; the statement's use of "output cost" also conflates cost with price, so statement 1 is not correct. Double deflation is used by most countries, not universally - India uses the same deflator for inputs and outputs - so statement 2 is not correct. Hence neither statement is correct.
Q66·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
The top of a table is rectangular and its dimensions are 6' 10'. Two rectangular portions of the table top are painted in blue colour; both these portions have dimensions 2.5' 8' and each of them has exactly two sides common with two edges of the table top. If the table is fixed to the ground and the remaining portion of the table top is painted in white, how many different patterns are possible when observed from above?
Correct: B
4. Each blue rectangle is 2.5 ft x 8 ft on a 6 ft x 10 ft tabletop and must share exactly two sides with two edges of the tabletop. Therefore each rectangle must occupy a corner, with its 8 ft side along a 10 ft edge and its 2.5 ft side along a 6 ft edge. There are four corner placements. Choosing two corner placements gives six pairs, but the two pairs lying on the same long edge overlap because 8+8 exceeds 10. The remaining four pairs are possible. Hence 4 different patterns are possible.
Q67·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W sit around a round table in eight different seats placed with equal distance between any two consecutive seats. Both P and R are adjacent to Q. Both T and R are adjacent to S. Both U and W are adjacent to V. S and W are on opposite chairs. If while going in the clockwise direction around the table from P, one meets R before T, then how many persons shall Q cross while moving in the clockwise direction around the table before meeting W?
Correct: A
Arrange the eight persons clockwise as P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W. Then Q has P and R adjacent, S has T and R adjacent, V has U and W adjacent, and S is opposite W. Going clockwise from P, one meets R (third position) before T (fifth position). From Q, going clockwise, one crosses R, S, T, U and V - five persons - before meeting W.
Q68·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
A toy T jumps forward or backward. In each forward jump, it moves 5' forward whereas in each backward jump, it moves 2' backward. If in 31 jumps, T moves exactly 15' forward, then what is the difference of the number of forward and backward jumps?
Correct: D
9. Let forward jumps be f and backward jumps be b. Then f+b=31 and net movement is 5f-2b=15. Substitute b=31-f: 5f - 2(31-f)=15, so 7f=77 and f=11. Then b=20. Difference = 20-11 = 9.
Q69·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Sport is not just about winning medals or getting jobs through a sports quota. Today's generation is struggling with issues like depression and anxiety. Parents often say that their children are inactive and rarely leave the house. From sport you can learn time management, fitness, teamwork, coordination, and so much more. We need to develop a culture in which sport is seen as a way of life—a path to building a healthier, happier society. Question: Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Parents are not encouraging enough when it comes to children playing sport. 2. Participation in sporting activities can help develop life skills. 3. Sport as a way of life can help evolve the very nature of society itself. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: B
The passage says parents report that their children are inactive and rarely leave the house, not that parents do not encourage sport, so statement 1 is incorrect. It says sport teaches time management, fitness, teamwork and coordination, so statement 2 is correct. It says sport as a way of life builds a healthier, happier society, so statement 3 is correct. Hence statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Q70·CSAT·2026·Logical Reasoning
Sport is not just about winning medals or getting jobs through a sports quota. Today's generation is struggling with issues like depression and anxiety. Parents often say that their children are inactive and rarely leave the house. From sport you can learn time management, fitness, teamwork, coordination, and so much more. We need to develop a culture in which sport is seen as a way of life—a path to building a healthier, happier society. Question: Which of the following conclusions are valid? 1. Sport is more than just games; it is a way of life. 2. Sport can help mitigate the problems of seclusion among the young. 3. Earning laurels in sport can help one secure a job on the basis of an assigned quota. 4. Standard corporate sector skills cannot be learnt through sport. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: D
The passage says sport is not just about medals or quota jobs but a way of life, so conclusions 1 and 3 are valid. Sport gets inactive, house-bound young people engaged, mitigating seclusion, so conclusion 2 is valid. It teaches exactly the skills (time management, teamwork) needed in the corporate sector, so conclusion 4 is not valid. Hence conclusions 1, 2 and 3 are valid.
Q71·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
X, Y and Z jump forward 4', 6' and 5', respectively. At 8 AM, they all land on mark 199'. How many times will they all land on the same mark (need not be at the same moment) between mark 195' and 1000', if all of them cross mark 1000' by 9 AM?
Correct: D
14. X, Y and Z land on marks separated by 4, 6 and 5 respectively. A mark common to all three must differ from 199 by a multiple of lcm(4,6,5)=60. Between 195 and 1000, the common marks are 199, 259, 319, ..., 979. This is 14 marks.
Q72·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
How many words can one form by shuffling the letters of the word QUEUE, if Q is always followed by U? The words thus formed need not necessarily have any meaning.
Correct: D
Treat QU as one block since Q must always be followed by U. We then arrange the four items QU, E, U, E, where the two Es are identical: 4!/2! = 12. Hence 12 words can be formed.
Q73·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
The weight of X, in kg, is denoted by X. The weights of A, B, C, D, P, Q, R and S are measured. Given A+ B+ C+ D = 17 A+C=6 P + Q+ S+ D = 15 P+Q+ R+ B= 17 P = R and Q = S Which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct: B
From A + C = 6 and A + B + C + D = 17, we get B + D = 11. Using P = R and Q = S, the equations become P + 2Q + D = 15 and 2P + Q + B = 17. Adding them, 3(P + Q) + (B + D) = 32, so 3(P + Q) = 21 and P + Q = 7, which is more than A + C = 6. The other comparisons are not forced. Hence option B is correct.
Q74·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
'Kalagram', the cultural village set up at the Maha Kumbh Mela, unfolded as a mosaic of India's diverse regions, each represented by seven meticulously crafted 'Sanskriti Angans'—stepping through the grand portal was like entering another world. These thematic zones, inspired by iconic temples like the Dakshineshwar Kali Temple and the Brahma Mandir, were treasure troves of regional artistry. Bengal's Pattachitra paintings, Assam's bamboo crafts, Tamil Nadu's Thanjavur paintings, and Madhya Pradesh's tribal sculpture—all were showcased in these living galleries where 230 master artisans breathed life into them using age-old techniques, their hands shaping India's ancient history into creations to behold. Question: Which one of the following statements is not correct?
Correct: A
The passage mentions paintings from Bengal (Pattachitra) and Tamil Nadu (Thanjavur); Assam's bamboo crafts and Madhya Pradesh's tribal sculpture are not paintings. So paintings from four States were not mentioned, making option A the statement that is not correct. Stepping through the portal was like entering another world (B), the Angans were living galleries (C), and the zones were inspired by iconic temples (D) - all correct.
Q75·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
'Kalagram', the cultural village set up at the Maha Kumbh Mela, unfolded as a mosaic of India's diverse regions, each represented by seven meticulously crafted 'Sanskriti Angans'—stepping through the grand portal was like entering another world. These thematic zones, inspired by iconic temples like the Dakshineshwar Kali Temple and the Brahma Mandir, were treasure troves of regional artistry. Bengal's Pattachitra paintings, Assam's bamboo crafts, Tamil Nadu's Thanjavur paintings, and Madhya Pradesh's tribal sculpture—all were showcased in these living galleries where 230 master artisans breathed life into them using age-old techniques, their hands shaping India's ancient history into creations to behold. Question: Which of the following conclusions are valid? 1. Seven Sanskriti Angans, representing different regions of India, had been showcased in Kalagram. 2. Regional artistry was recognised via the inspiration drawn from iconic temples. 3. India's ancient history had been crafted by the contemporary craftsmanship of 230 artisans into creations to behold. 4. Art forms from all regions of India had been showcased in these living galleries. Select the answer using the code given below.
Correct: A
The passage states that Kalagram unfolded as a mosaic of India's diverse regions, each represented by seven Sanskriti Angans (statement 1 valid), and that these thematic zones were inspired by iconic temples such as the Dakshineshwar Kali Temple and the Brahma Mandir and served as treasure troves of regional artistry (statement 2 valid). The passage credits 230 master artisans with using age-old traditional techniques, not "contemporary craftsmanship" (statement 3 invalid), and it does not claim that art forms from all regions of India were showcased (statement 4 invalid). Hence 1 and 2 only.
Q76·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
Question If x, y and z are integers, each greater than 1, then is x a prime number? Statement I: xy^2 = 116 Statement II: xz = 261
Correct: A
Statement I: xy^2 = 116 = 2^2 x 29. Since y > 1, the only factorisation with a perfect square is y = 2 and x = 29, so x is prime - Statement I alone is sufficient. Statement II: xz = 261 = 3^2 x 29 allows x = 3, 9, 29 or 87, so it is not sufficient. Hence the question can be answered using one of the statements alone, but not the other.
Q77·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
Question X is a collection of certain odd numbers whereas Y is a collection of certain even numbers. T consists of the numbers all of which are either from X or from Y. Is every number of T from Y? Statement I The sum of any two numbers belonging to T is even. Statement II: If both p and q are picked from T, then (p - 1)q is even.
Correct: D
Statement I: if the sum of any two numbers of T is even, then T is either all even or all odd - it does not tell us whether every number is from Y. Statement II: (p - 1)q is even for all p, q in T only when T is uniform in parity (all even or all odd), again without distinguishing X from Y. Even together, both possibilities remain. Hence the question cannot be answered even using any of the statements.
Q78·CSAT·2026·Decision Making / Analytical Reasoning
Question: If x and y are integers, then is x even? Statement I: x^2 y^2 is even. Statement II: 1 + x^2 + y^2 is odd.
Correct: C
Select this option if the question can be answered using both the statements together, but cannot be answered using either statement alone. The question asks whether x is even. Statement I alone only indicates an even parity condition involving x and y, but does not fix x's parity in every case. Statement II alone also allows more than one parity possibility. Together, the two parity conditions force x to be even, so both statements together are sufficient but neither alone is sufficient.
Q79·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
Question: For two distinct real numbers x and y, which of them is bigger? Statement I: x^2 < y < 1. Statement II: y < sqrt(x) < 1.
Correct: D
Statement I: x^2 < y < 1. For x = 0.5, y = 0.3 satisfies it with y < x, while x = 0.2, y = 0.3 satisfies it with y > x - so it does not determine the bigger number. Statement II: y < sqrt(x) < 1 similarly allows both orderings. Together, x^2 < y < sqrt(x) < 1 is satisfied by both (x = 0.5, y = 0.3) and (x = 0.2, y = 0.3). Hence the question cannot be answered even using any of the statements.
Q80·CSAT·2026·Quantitative Aptitude
Question: X receives three coins of different denominations: 1, 2, 5, 10 and 20. If the total amount received by X is m, does X receive a coin of denomination 5? Statement I m is not a prime number. Statement II The sum of the digits of m is greater than 5.
Correct: A
The sums of three distinct coins that do NOT include a 5 coin are 13, 23, 31 and 32, whose digit sums are 4, 5, 4 and 5 - none greater than 5. Every sum whose digit sum exceeds 5 includes a coin of denomination 5, so Statement II alone answers the question. Statement I alone does not: 32 = 2 + 10 + 20 is not prime and contains no 5. Hence one of the statements alone (Statement II) answers the question.